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Latest Amazon ANS-C00 dumps practice test questions

1.

In order to change the name of the AWS Config ____, you must stop the configuration recorder, delete the current one, and create a new one with a new name, since there can only be one of this per AWS account.

A. SNS topic
B. configuration history
C. delivery channel
D. S3 bucket path

Explanation: As AWS Config continually records the changes that occur to your AWS resources, it sends notifications and updated configuration states through the delivery channel. You can manage the delivery channel to control where AWS Config sends configuration updates.

You can have only one delivery channel per AWS account, and the delivery channel is required to use AWS Config. To change the delivery channel name, you must delete it and create a new delivery channel with the desired name.

Before you can delete the delivery channel, you must temporarily stop the configuration recorder. The AWS Config console does not provide the option to delete the delivery channel, so you must use the AWS CLI, the AWS Config API, or one of the AWS SDKs.

Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/config/latest/developerguide/update-dc.html

2.

How many tunnels do you get with each VPN connection hosted by AWS?

A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 8

Explanation:
All AWS VPNs come with 2 tunnels for resiliency.

3.

Your organization runs a popular e-commerce application deployed on AWS that uses autoscaling in conjunction with an Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) service with an HTTPS listener. Your security team reports that an exploitable vulnerability has been discovered in the encryption protocol and cipher that your site uses.

Which step should you take to fix this problem?

A. Generate new SSL certificates for all web servers and replace current certificates.
B. Change the security policy on the ELB to disable vulnerable protocols and ciphers.
C. Generate new SSL certificates and use ELB to front-end the encrypted traffic for all web servers.
D. Leverage your current configuration management system to update SSL policy on all web servers.

4.

A company is deploying a critical application on two Amazon EC2 instances in a VPC. Failed client connections to the EC2 instances must be logged according to company policy.

What is the MOST cost-effective solution to meet these requirements?

A. Move the EC2 instances to a dedicated VPC. Enable VPC Flow Logs with a filter on the deny action. Publish the flow logs to Amazon CloudWatch Logs.
B. Move the EC2 instances to a dedicated VPC subnet. Enable VPC Flow Logs for the subnet with a filter on the reject action. Publish the flow logs to an Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose stream with data delivery to an Amazon S3 bucket.
C. Enable VPC Flow Logs, filtered for rejected traffic, for the elastic network interfaces associated with the instances. Publish the flow logs to an Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose stream with data delivery to an Amazon S3 bucket.
D. Enable VPC Flow Logs, filtered for rejected traffic, for the elastic network interfaces associated with the instances. Publish the flow logs to Amazon CloudWatch Logs.

5.

A company installed an AWS Site-to-Site VPN and configured it to use two tunnels. The company has learned that the VPN connectivity is unstable. During a ping test from the on-premises data center to AWS, a network engineer notices that the first few ICMP replies time out but that subsequent requests are successful.

The AWS Management Console shows that the status for both tunnels last changed at the same time the ping responses were successfully received. Which steps should the network engineer take to resolve the instability? (Choose two.)

A. Enable dead peer detection (DPD) on the customer gateway device.
B. Change the tunnel configuration to active/standby on the virtual private gateway.
C. Use AS-PATH prepending on one path to cause all traffic to prefer that tunnel.
D. Send ICMP requests to an instance in the VPC every 5 seconds from the on-premises network.
E. Use a higher multi-exit discriminator (MED) value on the preferred path to prefer that tunnel.

6.

A company wants to enforce a compliance requirement that its Amazon EC2 instances use only on-premises DNS servers for name resolution. Outbound DNS requests to all other name servers must be denied. A network engineer configures the following set of outbound rules for a security group:

The network engineer discovers that the EC2 instances are still able to resolve DNS requests by using Amazon DNS servers inside the VPC.

Why is the solution failing to meet the compliance requirement?

A. The security group cannot filer outbound traffic to the Amazon DNS servers.
B. The security group must have inbound rules to prevent DNS requests from coming back to EC2 instances.
C. The EC2 instances are using the HTTPS port to send DNS queries to Amazon DNS servers.
D. The security group cannot filter outbound traffic to destinations within the same VPC.

7.

Your company is expanding its cloud infrastructure and moving many of its flat files and static assets to S3. You currently use a VPN to access your compute infrastructure, but you require more reliability for your static files as you are offloading all of your important data to AWS.

What is your best course of action while keeping costs low?

A. Create a Direct Connect connection using a Private VIF to access both compute and S3 resources.
B. Create an S3 endpoint and create a route to the endpoint prefix list for your VPN to allow access to your S3 resources.
C. Create two Direct Connect connections. Each is connected to a Private VIF to ensure maximum resiliency.
D. Create a Direct Connect connection using a Public VIF and route your VPN over the DX connection to your VPN endpoint.

Explanation:
An S3 endpoint cannot be used with a VPN. A Private VIF cannot access S3 resources. A Public VIF with a VPN will ensure security for your compute resources and access to your S3 resources. Two DX connections are very expensive and a Private VIF still won\\’t allow access to your S3 resources.

8.

You need to create a subnet in a VPC that supports 1000 hosts. You need to be as accurate as possible since you run a very large company. What CIDR should you use?

A. /16
B. /24
C. /7
D. /22

Explanation:
/22 supports 1019 hosts since AWS reserves 5 addresses.

9.

You are configuring a VPN to AWS for your company. You have configured the VGW and CGW. You have created the VPN. You have also run the necessary commands on your router. You allowed all TCP and UDP traffic between your data center and your VPC.

The tunnel still doesn\\’t come up. What is the most likely reason?

A. You forgot to turn on route propagation in the routing table.
B. You do not have a public ASN.
C. Your advertised subnet is too large.
D. You haven\\’t added protocol 50 to your firewall.

Explanation:
You haven\\’t allowed protocol 50 through the firewall. Protocol 50 is different from UDP (17) and TCP (6) and requires a rule in your firewall for your VPN tunnel to come up.

10.

Which two choices can serve as a directory service for WorkSpaces? (Choose two.)

A. Simple AD
B. Enhanced AD
C. Direct Connection
D. AWS Microsoft AD

Explanation:
There is no such thing as “Enhanced AD” and DX is not a directory service.

11.

Each custom AWS Config rule you create must be associated with a(n) AWS ____, which contains the logic that evaluates whether your AWS resources comply with the rule.

A. Lambda function
B. Configuration trigger
C. EC2 instance
D. S3 bucket

Explanation: You can develop custom AWS Config rules to be evaluated by associating each of them with an AWS Lambda function, which contains the logic that evaluates whether your AWS resources comply with the rule.

You associate this function with your rule, and the rule invokes the function either in response to configuration changes or periodically. The function then evaluates whether your resources comply with your rule, and sends its evaluation results to AWS Config.

Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/config/latest/developerguide/evaluate-config_develop-rules.html

12.

After setting an AWS Direct Connect, which of the following cannot be done with an AWS Direct Connect Virtual Interface?

A. You can delete a virtual interface; if its connection has no other virtual interfaces, you can delete the connection.
B. You can change the region of your virtual interface.
C. You can create a hosted virtual interface.
D. You can exchange traffic between the two ports in the same region connecting to different Virtual Private Gateways (VGWs) if you have more than one virtual interface.

Explanation: You must create a virtual interface to begin using your AWS Direct Connect connection. You can create a public virtual interface to connect to public resources or a private virtual interface to connect to your VPC.

Also, it is possible to configure multiple virtual interfaces on a single AWS Direct Connect connection, and you\\’ll need one private virtual interface for each VPC to connect to.

Each virtual interface needs a VLAN ID, interface IP address, ASN, and BGP key. To use your AWS Direct Connect connection with another AWS account, you can create a hosted virtual interface for that account.

These hosted virtual interfaces work the same as standard virtual interfaces and can connect to public resources or a VPC.

Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/directconnect/latest/UserGuide/WorkingWithVirtualInterfaces.html

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2022 latest AWS Certified Specialty ANS-C00 practice tests

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QUESTION 1

A company is deploying a non-web application on an Elastic Load Balancing. All targets are servers located on-premises that can be accessed by using AWS Direct Connect.

The company wants to ensure that the source IP addresses of clients connecting to the application are passed all the way to the end server.

How can this requirement be achieved?

A. Use a Network Load Balancer to automatically preserve the source IP address.
B. Use a Network Load Balancer and enable the X-Forwarded-Forattribute.
C. Use a Network Load Balancer and enable the ProxyProtocolattribute.
D. Use an Application Load Balancer to automatically preserve the source IP address in the XForwarded-Forheader.

QUESTION 2

To directly manage your CloudTrail security layer, you can use ____ for your CloudTrail log files

A. SSE-S3
B. SCE-KMS
C. SCE-S3
D. SSE-KMS

Explanation: By default, the log files delivered by CloudTrail to your bucket are encrypted by Amazon server-side encryption with Amazon S3-managed encryption keys (SSE-S3). To provide a security layer that is directly manageable, you can instead use server-side encryption with AWS KMS-managed keys (SSE-KMS) for your CloudTrail log files.

Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/awscloudtrail/latest/userguide/encrypting-cloudtrail-log-files-withaws-kms.html

QUESTION 3

DNS name resolution must be provided for services in the following four zones: The contents of these zones are not considered sensitive, however, the zones only need to be used by services hosted in these VPCs, one per geographic region. Each VPC should resolve the names in all zones.

How can you use Amazon route 53 to meet these requirements?

A. Create a Route 53 Private Hosted Zone for each of the four zones and associate them with the three VPCs.
B. Create a single Route 53 Private Hosted Zone for the zone company.private.and associate it with the three VPCs.
C. Create a Route Public 53 Hosted Zone for each of the four zones and configure the VPC DNS Resolver to forward
D. Create a single Route 53 Public Hosted Zone for the zone company. private. and configure the VPC DNS Resolver to forward

QUESTION 4

A network engineer has configured a private hosted zone using Amazon Route 53. The engineer needs to configure health checks for recordsets within the zone that are associated with instances.
How can the engineer meet the requirements?

A. Configure a Route 53 health check to a private IP associated with the instances inside the VPC to be checked.
B. Configure a Route 53 health checkpointing to an Amazon SNS topic that notifies an Amazon CloudWatch alarm when the Amazon EC2 StatusCheckFailed metric fails.
C. Create a CloudWatch metric that checks the status of the EC2 StatusCheckFailed metric, add an alarm to the metric, and then create a health check that is based on the state of the alarm.
D. Create a CloudWatch alarm for the StatusCheckFailed metric and choose to Recover this instance, selecting a threshold value of 1.

QUESTION 5

A company has an AWS Direct Connect connection between its on-premises data center and Amazon VPC. An application running on an Amazon EC2 instance in the VPC needs to access confidential data stored in the on-premises data center with consistent performance. For compliance purposes, data encryption is required.

What should the network engineer do to meet these requirements?

A. Configure a public virtual interface on the Direct Connect connection. Set up an AWS Site-to-Site VPN between the customer gateway and the virtual private gateway in the VPC.
B. Configure a private virtual interface on the Direct Connect connection. Set up an AWS Site-to-Site VPN between the
customer gateway and the virtual private gateway in the VPC.
C. Configure an internet gateway in the VPC. Set up a software VPN between the customer gateway and an EC2 instance in the VPC.
D. Configure an internet gateway in the VPC. Set up an AWS Site-to-Site VPN between the customer gateway and the virtual private gateway in the VPC.

QUESTION 6

A company is running services in a VPC with a CIDR block of 10.5.0.0/22. End users report that they no longer can provision new resources because some of the subnets in the VPC have run out of IP addresses.

How should a network engineer resolve this issue?

A. Add 10.5.2.0/23 as a second CIDR block to the VPC. Create a new subnet with a new CIDR block and provision new resources in the new subnet.
B. Add 10.5.4.0/21 as a second CIDR block to the VPC. Assign a second network from this CIDR block to the existing subnets that have run out of IP addresses.
C. Add 10.5.4.0/22 as a second CIDR block to the VPC. Assign a second network from this CIDR block to the existing subnets that have run out of IP addresses.
D. Add 10.5.4.0/22 as a second CIDR block to the VPC. Create a new subnet with a new CIDR block and provision new resources in the new subnet.

Explanation: To connect to public AWS products such as Amazon EC2 and Amazon S3 through the AWS Direct Connect, you need to provide the following: A public Autonomous System Number (ASN) that you own (preferred) or a private ASN. Public IP addresses (/30) (that is, one for each end of the BGP session) for each BGP session. The public routes that you will advertise over BGP.

Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/directconnect/latest/UserGuide/Welcome.html

QUESTION 8

You have a DX connection and a VPN connection as backup for your 10.0.0.0/16 network. You just received a letter indicating that the colocation provider hosting the DX connection will be undergoing maintenance soon. It is critical that you do not experience any downtime or latency during this period.
What is the best course of action?

A. Configure the VPN as a static VPN instead of a dynamic one.
B. Configure AS_PATH Prepending on the DX connection to make it the less preferred path.
C. Advertise 10.0.0.0/9 and 10.128.0.0/9 over your VPN connection.
D. None of the above.

Explanation:
A more specific route is the only way to force AWS to prefer a VPN connection over a DX connection. A /9 is not more specific than a /16.

QUESTION 9

Which statement is NOT true about accessing remote AWS region in the US by your AWS Direct Connect which is located in the US?

A. To connect to a VPC in a remote region, you can use a virtual private network (VPN) connection over your public virtual interface.
B. To access public resources in a remote region, you must set up a public virtual interface and establish a border gateway protocol (BGP) session.
C. If you have a public virtual interface and established a BGP session to it, your router learns the routes of the other AWS regions in the US.
D. Any data transfer out of a remote region is billed at the location of your AWS Direct Connect data transfer rate.

Explanation:
AWS Direct Connect locations in the United States can access public resources in any US region. You can use a single AWS Direct Connect connection to build multi-region services. To connect to a VPC in a remote region, you can use a virtual private network (VPN) connection over your public virtual interface.

To access public resources in a remote region, you must set up a public virtual interface and establish a border gateway protocol (BGP) session. Then your router learns the routes of the other AWS regions in the US. You can then also establish a VPN connection to your VPC in the remote region. Any data transfer out of a remote region is billed at the remote region data transfer rate.

Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/directconnect/latest/UserGuide/remote_regions.html

QUESTION 10

Your application server instances reside in the private subnet of your VPC. These instances need to access a Git repository on the Internet. You create a NAT gateway in the public subnet of your VPC. The NAT gateway can reach the Git repository, but instances in the private subnet cannot.

You confirm that a default route in the private subnet route table points to the NAT gateway. The security group for your application server instances permits all traffic to the NAT gateway.
What configuration change should you make to ensure that these instances can reach the patch server?

A. Assign public IP addresses to the instances and route 0.0.0.0/0 to the Internet gateway.
B. Configure an outbound rule on the application server instance security group for the Git repository.
C. Configure inbound network access control lists (network ACLs) to allow traffic from the Git repository to the public subnet.
D. Configure an inbound rule on the application server instance security group for the Git repository.

Explanation: The traffic leaves the instance destined for the Git repository; at this point, the security group must allow it through.

The route then directs that traffic (based on the IP) to the NAT gateway. This is wrong because it removes the private aspect of the subnet and would have no effect on the blocked traffic anyway. C is wrong because the problem is that outgoing traffic is not getting to the NAT gateway. D is wrong because to allow outgoing traffic to the Git repository requires an outgoing security group rule.

QUESTION 11

What is the maximum size of a response body that Amazon CloudFront will return to the viewer?

A. Unlimited
B. 5 GB
C. 100 MB
D. 20 GB

Explanation:
The maximum size of a response body that CloudFront will return to the viewer is 20 GB.

Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudFront/latest/DeveloperGuide/
RequestAndResponseBehaviorS3Origin.html#ResponseBehaviorS3Origin

QUESTION 12

An organization processes consumer information submitted through its website. The organization\’s security policy requires that personally identifiable information (PII) elements are specifically encrypted at all times and as soon as feasible when received.

The front-end Amazon EC2 instances should not have access to decrypted PII. A single service within the production VPC must decrypt the PII by leveraging an IAM role.

Which combination of services will support these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Amazon Aurora in a private subnet
B. Amazon CloudFront using AWS [email protected]
C. Customer-managed MySQL with Transparent Data Encryption
D. Application Load Balancer using HTTPS listeners and targets
E. AWS Key Management Services

References: https://noise.getoto.net/tag/aws-kms/

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Latest Amazon AWS ANS-C00 practice exam questions at here:

QUESTION 1
Over which of the following Ethernet standards does AWS Direct Connect link your internal network to an AWS Direct
Connect location?
A. Copper backplane cable
B. Twisted pair cable
C. Single mode fiber-optic cable
D. Shielded balanced copper cable
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
AWS Direct Connect links your internal network to an AWS Direct Connect location over a standard 1
gigabit or 10 gigabit Ethernet single mode fiber-optic cable.
Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/directconnect/latest/UserGuide/Welcome.html


QUESTION 2
A company has two redundant AWS Direct Connect connections to a VPC. The VPC is configured using BGP metrics
so that one Direct Connect connection is used as the primary traffic path. The company wants the primary Direct
Connect connection to fail to the secondary in less than one second.
What should be done to meet this requirement?
A. Configure BGP on the company\\’s router with a keep-alive to 300 ms and the BGP hold timer to 900 ms.
B. Enable Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD) on the company\\’s router with a detection minimum interval of 300
ms and a BFD liveness detection multiplier of 3.
C. Enable Dead Peer Detection (DPD) on the company\\’s router with a detection minimum interval of 300 ms and a
DPD liveliness detection multiplier of 3.
D. Enable Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD) echo mode on the company\\’s router and disable sending the
Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) IP packet requests.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/directconnect/faqs/

QUESTION 3
Your organization uses a VPN to connect to your VPC but must upgrade to a 1-G AWS Direct Connect connection for
stability and performance. Your telecommunications provider has provisioned the circuit from your data center to an
AWS Direct Connect facility and needs information on how to cross-connect (e.g., which rack/port to connect).
What is the AWS-recommended procedure for providing this information?
A. Create a support ticket. Provide your AWS account number and telecommunications company\\’s name and where
you need the Direct Connect connection to terminate.
B. Create a new connection through your AWS Management Console and wait for an email from AWS with information.
C. Ask your telecommunications provider to contact AWS through an AWS Partner Channel. Provide your AWS account
number.
D. Contact an AWS Account Manager and provide your AWS account number, telecommunications company\\’s name,
and where you need the Direct Connect connection to terminate.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
Your company just purchased a domain using another registrar and wants to use the same nameservers as your current
domain hosted with AWS. How would this be achieved?
A. Every domain must have different nameservers.
B. In the API, create a Reusable Delegation Set.
C. Import the domain to your account and it will automatically set the same nameservers.
D. In the console, create a Reusable Delegation Set.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
You can\\’t create a reusable delegation set in the console. AWS does not provide the same nameservers to
new domains, but a reusable delegation set can be used with as many domains as you like.


QUESTION 5
What are two routing methods used by Route 53? (Choose two.)
A. RIP
B. Failover
C. Latency
D. AS_PATH
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation:
RIP is used for network routing and AS_PATH is used for BGP path manipulation.

QUESTION 6
A company is about to migrate an application from its on-premises data center to AWS. As part of the planning process,
the following requirements involving DNS have been identified.
1.
On-premises systems must be able to resolve the entries in an Amazon Route 53 private hosted zone.
2.
Amazon EC2 instances running in the organization\\’s VPC must be able to resolve the DNS names of on-premises
systems
The organization\\’s VPC uses the CIDR block 172.16.0.0/16.
Assuming that there is no DNS namespace overlap, how can these requirements be met?
A. Change the DHCP options set for the VPC to use both the Amazon-provided DNS server and the on-premises DNS
systems. Configure the on-premises DNS systems with a stub-zone, delegating the name server 172.16.0.2 as
authoritative for the Route 53 private hosted zone.
B. Deploy and configure a set of EC2 instances into the company VPC to act as DNS proxies. Configure the proxies to
forward queries for the on-premises domain to the on-premises DNS systems, and forward all other queries to
172.16.0.2. Change the DHCP options set for the VPC to use the new DNS proxies. Configure the on-premises DNS
systems with a stub-zone, delegating the name server
172.16.0.2 as authoritative for the Route 53 private hosted zone.
C. Deploy and configure a set of EC2 instances into the company VPC to act as DNS proxies. Configure the proxies to
forward queries for the on-premises domain to the on-premises DNS systems, and forward all other queries to the
Amazon-provided DNS server (172.16.0.2). Change the DHCP options set for the VPC to use the new DNS proxies.
Configure the on-premises DNS systems with a stub-zone, delegating the proxies as authoritative for the Route 53
private hosted zone.
D. Change the DHCP options set for the VPC to use both the on-premises DNS systems. Configure the on-premises
DNS systems with a stub-zone, delegating the Route 53 private hosted zone\\’s name servers as authoritative for the
Route 53 private hosted zone.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
A company is delivering web content from an Amazon EC2 instance in a public subnet with address 2001:db8:1:100::1.
Users report they are unable to access the web content. The VPC Flow Logs for the subnet contain the following
entries:
2 012345678912 eni-0596e500123456789 2001:db8:2:200::2 2001:db8:1:100::1 0 0 58 234 24336 1551299195
1551299434 ACCEPT OK 2 012345678912 eni-0596e500123456789 2001:db8:1:100::1 2001:db8:2:200::2 0 0 58 234
24336 1551299195 1551299434 REJECT OK
Which action will restore network reachability to the EC2 instance?
A. Update the security group associated with eni-0596e500123456789to permit inbound traffic.
B. Update the security group associated with eni-0596e500123456789to permit outbound traffic.
C. Update the network ACL associated with the subnet to permit inbound traffic.
D. Update the network ACL associated with the subnet to permit outbound traffic.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
You need to find the public IP address of an instance that you\\’re logged in to. What command would you use?
A. curl ftp://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/public-ipv4
B. scp localhost/latest/meta-data/public-ipv4
C. curl http://127.0.0.1/latest/meta-data/public-ipv4
D. curl http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/public-ipv4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: curl http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/public-ipv4

QUESTION 9
What MTU is recommended for VPN and Direct Connect links?
A. 1500
B. 2000
C. 128
D. Jumbo Frames
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Jumbo frames will not pass through VPN and Direct Connect links using AWS connections. You must use
an MTU of 1500.


QUESTION 10
A company\\’s application runs in a VPC and stores sensitive data in Amazon S3. The application\\’s Amazon EC2
instances are located in a private subnet with a NAT gateway deployed in a public subnet to provide access to Amazon
S3. The S3 bucket is located in the same AWS Region as the EC2 instances. The company wants to ensure that this
bucket can be accessed only from the VPC where the application resides.
Which changes should a network engineer make to the architecture to meet these requirements?
A. Delete the existing S3 bucket and create a new S3 bucket inside the VPC in the private subnet. Configure the S3
security group to allow only the application instances to access the bucket.
B. Deploy an S3 VPC endpoint in the VPC where the application resides. Configure an S3 bucket policy with a condition
to allow access only from the VPC endpoint.
C. Configure an S3 bucket policy, and use an IP address condition to restrict access to the bucket. Allow access only
from the VPC CIDR range, and deny all other IP address ranges.
D. Create a new IAM role for the EC2 instances that provides access to the S3 bucket, and assign the role to the
application instances. Configure an S3 bucket policy to allow access only from the role.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
You have a hybrid infrastructure, and you need AWS resources to be able to resolve your on-premises DNS names.
You have configured a DNS server on an EC2 instance in your 10.1.3.0/24 subnet. This subnet resides on the VPC
10.1.0.0/16. What step should you take to accomplish this?
A. Configure your DNS server to forward queries for the private hosted zone to 10.1.3.2.
B. Configure the DHCP option set in the VPC to point to the EC2 DNS server.
C. Configure your DNS server to forward queries for the private hosted zone to 10.1.0.2.
D. Disable the source/destination check flag for the DNS instance.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Your DNS server will forward queries to your on-premises DNS. You must configure the DHCP option set
so the instances will forward queries to your on-premises DNS instead of the VPC DNS.


QUESTION 12
Your company uses an NTP server to synchronize time across systems. The company runs multiple versions of Linux
and Windows systems. You discover that the NTP server has failed, and you need to add an alternate NTP server to
your instances.
Where should you apply the NTP server update to propagate information without rebooting your running instances?
A. DHCP Options Set
B. instance user-data
C. cfn-init scripts
D. instance meta-data
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Your company is expanding its cloud infrastructure and moving many of its flat files and static assets to S3. You
currently use a VPN to access your compute infrastructure, but you require more reliability for your static files as you are
offloading all of your important data to AWS. What is your best course of action while keeping costs low?
A. Create a Direct Connect connection using a Private VIF to access both compute and S3 resources.
B. Create an S3 endpoint and create a route to the endpoint prefix list for your VPN to allow access to your S3
resources.
C. Create two Direct Connect connections. Each connected to a Private VIF to ensure maximum resiliency.
D. Create a Direct Connect connection using a Public VIF and route your VPN over the DX connection to your VPN
endpoint.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
An S3 endpoint cannot be used with a VPN. A Private VIF cannot access S3 resources. A Public VIF with
a VPN will ensure security for your compute resources and access to your S3 resources. Two DX
connections are very expensive and a Private VIF still won\\’t allow access to your S3 resources.

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QUESTION 1
A company provisions an AWS Direct Connect connection to permit access to Amazon EC2 resources in several
Amazon VPCs and to data stored in private Amazon S3 buckets. The Network Engineer needs to configure the
company\\’s on-premises router for this Direct Connect connection.
Which of the following actions will require the LEAST amount of configuration overhead on the customer router?
A. Configure private virtual interfaces for the VPC resources and for Amazon S3.
B. Configure private virtual interfaces for the VPC resources and a public virtual interface for Amazon S3.
C. Configure a private virtual interface to a Direct Connect gateway for the VPC resources and for Amazon S3.
D. Configure a private virtual interface to a Direct Connect gateway for the VPC resources and a public virtual interface
for Amazon S3.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
You can use the ____ command of the AWS Config service CLI to see the compliance state for each AWS resource of
a specific type.
A. describe-compliance-by-resource
B. get-compliance-details-by-config-rule
C. describe-compliance-by-config-rule
D. get-compliance-details-by-resource
Correct Answer: A
You can use the AWS Config console, AWS CLI, or AWS Config API to view the compliance state of your rules and
resources. The describe-compliance-by-resource command of the AWS Config CLI to see the compliance state for each
AWS resource of a specific type. This is distinct from the describe-compliance-by-config-rule command, which gives the
compliance state of each rule in AWS Config .
Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/config/latest/developerguide/evaluate-config_view-compliance.html

QUESTION 3
An organization is migrating its on-premises applications to AWS by using a lift-and-shift approach, taking advantage of
managed AWS services wherever possible. The company must be able to edit the application code during the migration
phase. One application is a traditional three-tier application, consisting of a web presentation tier, an application tier, and
a database tier. The external calling client applications need their sessions to remain sticky to both the web and
application nodes that they initially connect to.
Which load balancing solution would allow the web and application tiers to scale horizontally independent from one
another other?
A. Use an Application Load Balancer at the web tier and a Classic Load Balancer at the application tier. Set session
stickiness on both, but update the application code to create an application-controlled cookie on the Classic Load
Balancer.
B. Use an Application Load Balancer at both the web and application tiers, setting session stickiness at the target group
level for both tiers.
C. Deploy a web node and an application node as separate containers on the same host, using task linking to create a
relationship between the pair. Add an Application Load Balancer with session stickiness in front of all web node
containers.
D. Use a Network Load Balancer at the web tier, and an Application Load Balancer at the application tier. Enable
session stickiness on the Application Load Balancer, but take advantage of the native WebSockets protocols available
to the Network Load Balancer.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A user has created a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16 with only a private subnet and VPN connection using the VPC wizard.
The user wants to connect to the instance in a private subnet over SSH. How should the user define the security rule for
SSH?
A. The user can connect to a instance in a private subnet using the NAT instance
B. The user has to create an instance in EC2 Classic with an elastic IP and configure the security group of a private
subnet to allow SSH from that elastic IP
C. Allow Inbound traffic on port 22 from the user\\’s network
D. Allow Inbound traffic on port 80 and 22 to allow the user to connect to a private subnet over the internet
Correct Answer: C
The user can create subnets as per the requirement within a VPC. If the user wants to connect VPC from his own data
centre, the user can setup a case with a VPN only subnet (private) which uses VPN access to connect with his data
centre. When the user has configured this setup with Wizard, all network connections to the instances in the subnet will
come from his data centre. The user has to configure the security group of the private subnet which allows the inbound
traffic on SSH (port 22) from the data centre\\’s network range.
Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonVPC/latest/UserGuide/VPC_Scenario4.html

QUESTION 5
A company deployed its production Amazon VPC using CIDR block 33.16.0.0/16. The company has nearly depleted its
addresses and now needs to extend the VPC network.
Which CIDR blocks meet the company\\’s requirement to extend the VPC network with a secondary CIDR? (Choose
two.)
A. 33.17.0.0/16
B. 172.16.0.0/18
C. 100.70.0.0/17
D. 192.168.1.0/24
E. 10.0.0.0/8
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
A company has an application running on Amazon EC2 instances in a private subnet that connects to a third-party
service provider\\’s public HTTP endpoint through a NAT gateway. As request rates increase, new connections are
starting to fail. At the same time, the ErrorPortAllocation Amazon CloudWatch metric count for the NAT gateway is
increasing.
Which of the following actions should improve the connectivity issues? (Choose two.)
A. Allocate additional elastic IP addresses to the NAT gateway.
B. Request that the third-party service provider implement HTTP keepalive.
C. Implement TCP keepalive on the client instances.
D. Create additional NAT gateways and update the private subnet route table to introduce the new NAT gateways.
E. Create additional NAT gateways in the public subnet and split client instances into multiple private subnets, each with
a route to a different NAT gateway.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/knowledge-center/vpc-resolve-port-allocation-errors/


QUESTION 7
You can use the ____ page of the AWS Config console to look up resources that AWS Config has discovered, including
deleted resources and resources that are not currently being recorded.
A. snapshot listing
B. configuration history
C. resource inventory
D. resource database
Correct Answer: C
You can use the AWS Config console, AWS CLI, and AWS Config API to look up the resources that AWS Config has
taken an inventory of, or discovered, including deleted resources and resources that AWS Config is not currently
recording. AWS Config discovers supported resource types only. You can use the AWS Config console in the AWS
Management console to look up these resources. The Resource Inventory page lets you perform this search.
Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/config/latest/developerguide/looking-up-discovered-resources.html
 

QUESTION 8
You can use the ____ command of the AWS Config service CLI to see the compliance state of each resource that AWS
Config evaluates for a specific rule.
A. describe-compliance-by-resource
B. describe-compliance-by-config-rule
C. get-compliance-details-by-config-rule
D. get-compliance-details-by-resource
Correct Answer: C
You can use the get-compliance-details-by-config-rule command of the AWS Config CLI to see the compliance state of
each resource that AWS Config evaluates for a specific rule. Reference:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/config/latest/developerguide/evaluate-config_view-compliance.html


QUESTION 9
Your company has a DX connection and you just added a new VPC and Private VIF to which you have connected to
your DX link. You copied the settings from the other VPC to ensure it\\’s the same. Once you connected the new VIF,
you began seeing problems with connectivity to both VPCs.
You checked to make sure you didn\\’t use the same CIDR with each VPC, so what could be the problem?
A. You used the same VLAN ID for both connections.
B. You overloaded your DX circuit.
C. Your MPLS provider does not allow traffic to two VPCs.
D. You can only connect one VIF to a DX circuit.
Correct Answer: A
You can only have 1 instance of any VLAN ID.

QUESTION 10
Each custom AWS Config rule you create must be associated with a(n) AWS ____, which contains the logic that
evaluates whether your AWS resources comply with the rule.
A. Lambda function
B. Configuration trigger
C. EC2 instance
D. S3 bucket
Correct Answer: A
You can develop custom AWS Config rules to be evaluated by associating each of them with an AWS Lambda function,
which contains the logic that evaluates whether your AWS resources comply with the rule. You associate this function
with your rule, and the rule invokes the function either in response to configuration changes or periodically. The function
then evaluates whether your resources comply with your rule, and sends its evaluation results to AWS Config.
Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/config/latest/developerguide/evaluate-config_develop-rules.html

QUESTION 11
Your company has installed an AWS Direct Connect connection in an ap-southeast-1 Direct Connect location. A public
virtual interface is configured through a router to a dedicated firewall. You advertise your company\\’s public /24 CIDR
block to AWS with AS 65500. The company maintains a separate, corporate Internet firewall to map all outbound traffic
to a single IP. This firewall maintains a BGP relationship with an upstream Internet provider that has delegated the
public IP block your company uses. When the BGP session for the public virtual interface is up, corporate network users
cannot access Amazon S3 resources in the ap-southeast-1 region.
Which step should you take to provide concurrent AWS and Internet access?
A. Configure AS-PATH prepending for the public virtual interface.
B. Advertise a host route for the corporate firewall on the public virtual interface.
C. Advertise a host route for the corporate firewall to the upstream Internet provider.
D. NAT the traffic destined for AWS from the dedicated firewall using the public virtual interface.
Correct Answer: D
When outgoing traffic is routed via the corporate firewall, its return path is via the Direct Connect public virtual interface
and therefore through the dedicated firewall. This dedicated firewall does not track the original NAT session and
subsequently drops the traffic. Answer A is incorrect because AWS will always prefer Direct Connect over Internet
routing. Answer B is incorrect because return traffic is still processed by the dedicated firewall. Answer C is incorrect
because it does not change the traffic flow.

QUESTION 12
A user is running a batch process on EBS backed EC2 instances. The batch process launches few EC2 instances to
process hadoop Map reduce jobs which can run between 50-600 minutes or sometimes for even more time. The user
wants a configuration that can terminate the instance only when the process is completed. How can the user configure
this with CloudWatch?
A. Configure a job which terminates all instances after 600 minutes
B. It is not possible to terminate instances automatically
C. Set up the CloudWatch with Auto Scaling to terminate all the instances
D. Configure the CloudWatch action to terminate the instance when the CPU utilization falls below 5%
Correct Answer: D
Amazon CloudWatch alarm watches a single metric over a time period that the user specifies and performs one or more
actions based on the value of the metric relative to a given threshold over a number of time periods. The user can setup
an action which terminates the instances when their CPU utilization is below a certain threshold for a certain period of
time. The EC2 action can either terminate or stop the instance as part of the EC2 action.
Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudWatch/latest/DeveloperGuide/UsingAlarmActions.html

QUESTION 13
A company\\’s Network Engineering team is solely responsible for deploying VPC infrastructure using AWS
CloudFormation. The company wants to give its Developers the ability to launch applications using CloudFormation
templates so that subnets can be created using available CIDR ranges.
What should be done to meet these requirements?
A. Create a CloudFormation templates with Amazon EC2 resources that rely on cfn-init and cfn-signals to inform the
stack of available CIDR ranges.
B. Create a CloudFormation template with a custom resource that analyzes traffic activity in VPC Flow Logs and reports
on available CIDR ranges.
C. Create a CloudFormation template that references the Fn::Cidr intrinsic function within a subnet resource to select an
available CIDR range.
D. Create a CloudFormation template with a custom resource that uses AWS Lambda and Amazon DynamoDB to
manage available CIDR ranges.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
A large ecommerce company uses Amazon DynamoDB to handle the transactions on its web portal. Traffic patterns
throughout the year are usually stable; however, a large event is planned. The company knows that traffic will increase
by up to 10 times the normal load over the 3-day event. When sale prices are published during the event, traffic will
spike rapidly.
How should a Database Specialist ensure DynamoDB can handle the increased traffic?
A. Ensure the table is always provisioned to meet peak needs
B. Allow burst capacity to handle the additional load
C. Set an AWS Application Auto Scaling policy for the table to handle the increase in traffic
D. Preprovision additional capacity for the known peaks and then reduce the capacity after the event
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A company released a mobile game that quickly grew to 10 million daily active users in North America. The game\\’s
backend is hosted on AWS and makes extensive use of an Amazon DynamoDB table that is configured with a TTL
attribute.
When an item is added or updated, its TTL is set to the current epoch time plus 600 seconds. The game logic relies on
old data being purged so that it can calculate rewards points accurately. Occasionally, items are read from the table that
are several hours past their TTL expiry.
How should a database specialist fix this issue?
A. Use a client library that supports the TTL functionality for DynamoDB.
B. Include a query filter expression to ignore items with an expired TTL.
C. Set the ConsistentRead parameter to true when querying the table.
D. Create a local secondary index on the TTL attribute.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A company wants to migrate its on-premises MySQL databases to Amazon RDS for MySQL. To comply with the
company\\’s security policy, all databases must be encrypted at rest. RDS DB instance snapshots must also be shared
across various accounts to provision testing and staging environments.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. Create an RDS for MySQL DB instance with an AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) customer managed
CMK. Update the key policy to include the Amazon Resource Name (ARN) of the other AWS accounts as a principal,
and then allow the kms:CreateGrant action.
B. Create an RDS for MySQL DB instance with an AWS managed CMK. Create a new key policy to include the Amazon
Resource Name (ARN) of the other AWS accounts as a principal, and then allow the kms:CreateGrant action.
C. Create an RDS for MySQL DB instance with an AWS owned CMK. Create a new key policy to include the
administrator user name of the other AWS accounts as a principal, and then allow the kms:CreateGrant action.
D. Create an RDS for MySQL DB instance with an AWS CloudHSM key. Update the key policy to include the Amazon
Resource Name (ARN) of the other AWS accounts as a principal, and then allow the kms:CreateGrant action.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/kms/latest/developerguide/grants.html

QUESTION 4
A company has an ecommerce web application with an Amazon RDS for MySQL DB instance. The marketing team has
noticed some unexpected updates to the product and pricing information on the website, which is impacting sales
targets. The marketing team wants a database specialist to audit future database activity to help identify how and when
the changes are being made.
What should the database specialist do to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Create an RDS event subscription to the audit event type.
B. Enable auditing of CONNECT and QUERY_DML events.
C. SSH to the DB instance and review the database logs.
D. Publish the database logs to Amazon CloudWatch Logs.
E. Enable Enhanced Monitoring on the DB instance.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
A database specialist was alerted that a production Amazon RDS MariaDB instance with 100 GB of storage was out of
space. In response, the database specialist modified the DB instance and added 50 GB of storage capacity. Three
hours later, a new alert is generated due to a lack of free space on the same DB instance. The database specialist
decides to modify the instance immediately to increase its storage capacity by 20 GB.
What will happen when the modification is submitted?
A. The request will fail because this storage capacity is too large.
B. The request will succeed only if the primary instance is in active status.
C. The request will succeed only if CPU utilization is less than 10%.
D. The request will fail as the most recent modification was too soon.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A software development company is using Amazon Aurora MySQL DB clusters for several use cases, including
development and reporting. These use cases place unpredictable and varying demands on the Aurora DB clusters, and
can cause momentary spikes in latency. System users run ad-hoc queries sporadically throughout the week. Cost is a
primary concern for the company, and a solution that does not require significant rework is needed.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. Create new Aurora Serverless DB clusters for development and reporting, then migrate to these new DB clusters.
B. Upgrade one of the DB clusters to a larger size, and consolidate development and reporting activities on this larger
DB cluster.
C. Use existing DB clusters and stop/start the databases on a routine basis using scheduling tools.
D. Change the DB clusters to the burstable instance family.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A Database Specialist has migrated an on-premises Oracle database to Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL. The schema and
the data have been migrated successfully. The on-premises database server was also being used to run database
maintenance cron jobs written in Python to perform tasks including data purging and generating data exports. The logs
for these jobs show that, most of the time, the jobs completed within 5 minutes, but a few jobs took up to 10 minutes to
complete. These maintenance jobs need to be set up for Aurora PostgreSQL. How can the Database Specialist
schedule these jobs so the setup requires minimal maintenance and provides high availability?
A. Create cron jobs on an Amazon EC2 instance to run the maintenance jobs following the required schedule.
B. Connect to the Aurora host and create cron jobs to run the maintenance jobs following the required schedule.
C. Create AWS Lambda functions to run the maintenance jobs and schedule them with Amazon CloudWatch Events.
D. Create the maintenance job using the Amazon CloudWatch job scheduling plugin.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/systems-manager/latest/userguide/mw-cli-task-options.html

QUESTION 8
A Database Specialist is designing a new database infrastructure for a ride hailing application. The application data
includes a ride tracking system that stores GPS coordinates for all rides. Real-time statistics and metadata lookups must
be performed with high throughput and microsecond latency. The database should be fault tolerant with minimal
operational overhead and development effort. Which solution meets these requirements in the MOST efficient way?
A. Use Amazon RDS for MySQL as the database and use Amazon ElastiCache
B. Use Amazon DynamoDB as the database and use DynamoDB Accelerator
C. Use Amazon Aurora MySQL as the database and use Aurora\\’s buffer cache
D. Use Amazon DynamoDB as the database and use Amazon API Gateway
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/solutions/case-studies/lyft/

QUESTION 9
A company needs a data warehouse solution that keeps data in a consistent, highly structured format. The company
requires fast responses for end-user queries when looking at data from the current year, and users must have access to
the full 15-year dataset, when needed. This solution also needs to handle a fluctuating number incoming queries.
Storage costs for the 100 TB of data must be kept low.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. Leverage an Amazon Redshift data warehouse solution using a dense storage instance type while keeping all the
data on local Amazon Redshift storage. Provision enough instances to support high demand.
B. Leverage an Amazon Redshift data warehouse solution using a dense storage instance to store the most recent
data. Keep historical data on Amazon S3 and access it using the Amazon Redshift Spectrum layer. Provision enough
instances to support high demand.
C. Leverage an Amazon Redshift data warehouse solution using a dense storage instance to store the most recent
data. Keep historical data on Amazon S3 and access it using the Amazon Redshift Spectrum layer. Enable Amazon
Redshift Concurrency Scaling.
D. Leverage an Amazon Redshift data warehouse solution using a dense storage instance to store the most recent
data. Keep historical data on Amazon S3 and access it using the Amazon Redshift Spectrum layer. Leverage Amazon
Redshift elastic resize.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
An ecommerce company has tasked a Database Specialist with creating a reporting dashboard that visualizes critical
business metrics that will be pulled from the core production database running on Amazon Aurora. Data that is read by
the dashboard should be available within 100 milliseconds of an update. The Database Specialist needs to review the
current configuration of the Aurora DB cluster and develop a cost-effective solution. The solution needs to accommodate the unpredictable read workload from the reporting dashboard without any impact on the write availability
and performance of the DB cluster. Which solution meets these requirements?
A. Turn on the serverless option in the DB cluster so it can automatically scale based on demand.
B. Provision a clone of the existing DB cluster for the new Application team.
C. Create a separate DB cluster for the new workload, refresh from the source DB cluster, and set up ongoing
replication using AWS DMS change data capture (CDC).
D. Add an automatic scaling policy to the DB cluster to add Aurora Replicas to the cluster based on CPU consumption.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A company has a database monitoring solution that uses Amazon CloudWatch for its Amazon RDS for SQL Server
environment. The cause of a recent spike in CPU utilization was not determined using the standard metrics that were
collected. The CPU spike caused the application to perform poorly, impacting users. A Database Specialist needs to
determine what caused the CPU spike. Which combination of steps should be taken to provide more visibility into the
processes and queries running during an increase in CPU load? (Choose two.)
A. Enable Amazon CloudWatch Events and view the incoming T-SQL statements causing the CPU to spike.
B. Enable Enhanced Monitoring metrics to view CPU utilization at the RDS SQL Server DB instance level.
C. Implement a caching layer to help with repeated queries on the RDS SQL Server DB instance.
D. Use Amazon QuickSight to view the SQL statement being run.
E. Enable Amazon RDS Performance Insights to view the database load and filter the load by waits, SQL statements,
hosts, or users.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
A company has migrated a single MySQL database to Amazon Aurora. The production data is hosted in a DB cluster in
VPC_PROD, and 12 testing environments are hosted in VPC_TEST using the same AWS account. Testing results in
minimal changes to the test data. The Development team wants each environment refreshed nightly so each test
database contains fresh production data every day.
Which migration approach will be the fastest and most cost-effective to implement?
A. Run the master in Amazon Aurora MySQL. Create 12 clones in VPC_TEST, and script the clones to be deleted and
re-created nightly.
B. Run the master in Amazon Aurora MySQL. Take a nightly snapshot, and restore it into 12 databases in VPC_TEST
using Aurora Serverless.
C. Run the master in Amazon Aurora MySQL. Create 12 Aurora Replicas in VPC_TEST, and script the replicas to be
deleted and re-created nightly.
D. Run the master in Amazon Aurora MySQL using Aurora Serverless. Create 12 clones in VPC_TEST, and script the
clones to be deleted and re-created nightly.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A manufacturing company\\’s website uses an Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster.
Which configurations will result in the LEAST application downtime during a failover? (Choose three.)
A. Use the provided read and write Aurora endpoints to establish a connection to the Aurora DB cluster.
B. Create an Amazon CloudWatch alert triggering a restore in another Availability Zone when the primary Aurora DB
cluster is unreachable.
C. Edit and enable Aurora DB cluster cache management in parameter groups.
D. Set TCP keepalive parameters to a high value.
E. Set JDBC connection string timeout variables to a low value.
F. Set Java DNS caching timeouts to a high value.
Correct Answer: ABC

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Latest Amazon DAS-C01 practice exam questions

QUESTION 1
A financial services company needs to aggregate daily stock trade data from the exchanges into a data store. The
company requires that data be streamed directly into the data store, but also occasionally allows data to be modified
using SQL. The solution should integrate complex, analytic queries running with minimal latency. The solution must
provide a business intelligence dashboard that enables viewing of the top contributors to anomalies in stock prices.
Which solution meets the company\\’s requirements?
A. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to stream data to Amazon S3. Use Amazon Athena as a data source for Amazon
QuickSight to create a business intelligence dashboard.
B. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to stream data to Amazon Redshift. Use Amazon Redshift as a data source for
Amazon QuickSight to create a business intelligence dashboard.
C. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to stream data to Amazon Redshift. Use Amazon Redshift as a data source for
Amazon QuickSight to create a business intelligence dashboard.
D. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to stream data to Amazon S3. Use Amazon Athena as a data source for Amazon
QuickSight to create a business intelligence dashboard.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
A retail company wants to use Amazon QuickSight to generate dashboards for web and in-store sales. A group of 50
business intelligence professionals will develop and use the dashboards. Once ready, the dashboards will be shared
with a group of 1,000 users.
The sales data comes from different stores and is uploaded to Amazon S3 every 24 hours. The data is partitioned by
year and month, and is stored in Apache Parquet format. The company is using the AWS Glue Data Catalog as its main
data catalog and Amazon Athena for querying. The total size of the uncompressed data that the dashboards query from
at any point is 200 GB.
Which configuration will provide the MOST cost-effective solution that meets these requirements?
A. Load the data into an Amazon Redshift cluster by using the COPY command. Configure 50 author users and 1,000
reader users. Use QuickSight Enterprise edition. Configure an Amazon Redshift data source with a direct query option.
B. Use QuickSight Standard edition. Configure 50 author users and 1,000 reader users. Configure an Athena data
source with a direct query option.
C. Use QuickSight Enterprise edition. Configure 50 author users and 1,000 reader users. Configure an Athena data
source and import the data into SPICE. Automatically refresh every 24 hours.
D. Use QuickSight Enterprise edition. Configure 1 administrator and 1,000 reader users. Configure an S3 data source
and import the data into SPICE. Automatically refresh every 24 hours.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A company is building a data lake and needs to ingest data from a relational database that has time-series data. The
company wants to use managed services to accomplish this. The process needs to be scheduled daily and bring
incremental data only from the source into Amazon S3.
What is the MOST cost-effective approach to meet these requirements?
A. Use AWS Glue to connect to the data source using JDBC Drivers. Ingest incremental records only
using job bookmarks.
B. Use AWS Glue to connect to the data source using JDBC Drivers. Store the last updated key in an Amazon
DynamoDB table and ingest the data using the updated key as a filter.
C. Use AWS Glue to connect to the data source using JDBC Drivers and ingest the entire dataset. Use appropriate
Apache Spark libraries to compare the dataset, and find the delta.
D. Use AWS Glue to connect to the data source using JDBC Drivers and ingest the full data. Use AWS DataSync to
ensure the delta only is written into Amazon S3.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A company wants to use an automatic machine learning (ML) Random Cut Forest (RCF) algorithm to visualize complex
real-word scenarios, such as detecting seasonality and trends, excluding outers, and imputing missing values.
The team working on this project is non-technical and is looking for an out-of-the-box solution that will require the
LEAST amount of management overhead.
Which solution will meet these requirements?
A. Use an AWS Glue ML transform to create a forecast and then use Amazon QuickSight to visualize the data.
B. Use Amazon QuickSight to visualize the data and then use ML-powered forecasting to forecast the key business
metrics.
C. Use a pre-build ML AMI from the AWS Marketplace to create forecasts and then use Amazon QuickSight to visualize
the data.
D. Use calculated fields to create a new forecast and then use Amazon QuickSight to visualize the data.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/big-data/query-visualize-and-forecast-trufactor-web-sessionintelligence-withaws-data-exchange/

QUESTION 5
An online retail company with millions of users around the globe wants to improve its ecommerce analytics capabilities.
Currently, clickstream data is uploaded directly to Amazon S3 as compressed files. Several times each day, an
application running on Amazon EC2 processes the data and makes search options and reports available for
visualization by editors and marketers. The company wants to make website clicks and aggregated data available to
editors and marketers in minutes to enable them to connect with users more effectively.
Which options will help meet these requirements in the MOST efficient way? (Choose two.)
A. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to upload compressed and batched clickstream records to Amazon Elasticsearch
Service.
B. Upload clickstream records to Amazon S3 as compressed files. Then use AWS Lambda to send data to Amazon
Elasticsearch Service from Amazon S3.
C. Use Amazon Elasticsearch Service deployed on Amazon EC2 to aggregate, filter, and process the data. Refresh
content performance dashboards in near-real time.
D. Use Kibana to aggregate, filter, and visualize the data stored in Amazon Elasticsearch Service. Refresh content
performance dashboards in near-real time.
E. Upload clickstream records from Amazon S3 to Amazon Kinesis Data Streams and use a Kinesis Data Streams
consumer to send records to Amazon Elasticsearch Service.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 6
A company has a data lake on AWS that ingests sources of data from multiple business units and uses Amazon Athena
for queries. The storage layer is Amazon S3 using the AWS Glue Data Catalog. The company wants to make the data
available to its data scientists and business analysts. However, the company first needs to manage data access for
Athena based on user roles and responsibilities.
What should the company do to apply these access controls with the LEAST operational overhead?
A. Define security policy-based rules for the users and applications by role in AWS Lake Formation.
B. Define security policy-based rules for the users and applications by role in AWS Identity and Access Management
(IAM).
C. Define security policy-based rules for the tables and columns by role in AWS Glue.
D. Define security policy-based rules for the tables and columns by role in AWS Identity and Access Management
(IAM).
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A marketing company is using Amazon EMR clusters for its workloads. The company manually installs third-party
libraries on the clusters by logging in to the master nodes. A data analyst needs to create an automated solution to
replace the manual process.
Which options can fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Place the required installation scripts in Amazon S3 and execute them using custom bootstrap actions.
B. Place the required installation scripts in Amazon S3 and execute them through Apache Spark in Amazon EMR.
C. Install the required third-party libraries in the existing EMR master node. Create an AMI out of that master node and
use that custom AMI to re-create the EMR cluster.
D. Use an Amazon DynamoDB table to store the list of required applications. Trigger an AWS Lambda function with
DynamoDB Streams to install the software.
E. Launch an Amazon EC2 instance with Amazon Linux and install the required third-party libraries on the instance.
Create an AMI and use that AMI to create the EMR cluster.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
A banking company is currently using an Amazon Redshift cluster with dense storage (DS) nodes to store sensitive
data. An audit found that the cluster is unencrypted. Compliance requirements state that a database with sensitive data
must be encrypted through a hardware security module (HSM) with automated key rotation.
Which combination of steps is required to achieve compliance? (Choose two.)
A. Set up a trusted connection with HSM using a client and server certificate with automatic key rotation.
B. Modify the cluster with an HSM encryption option and automatic key rotation.
C. Create a new HSM-encrypted Amazon Redshift cluster and migrate the data to the new cluster.
D. Enable HSM with key rotation through the AWS CLI.
E. Enable Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral (ECDHE) encryption in the HSM.
Correct Answer: BD
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/redshift/latest/mgmt/working-with-db-encryption.html

QUESTION 9
A company wants to enrich application logs in near-real-time and use the enriched dataset for further analysis. The
application is running on Amazon EC2 instances across multiple Availability Zones and storing its logs using Amazon
CloudWatch Logs. The enrichment source is stored in an Amazon DynamoDB table.
Which solution meets the requirements for the event collection and enrichment?
A. Use a CloudWatch Logs subscription to send the data to Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose. Use AWS Lambda to
transform the data in the Kinesis Data Firehose delivery stream and enrich it with the data in the DynamoDB table.
Configure Amazon S3 as the Kinesis Data Firehose delivery destination.
B. Export the raw logs to Amazon S3 on an hourly basis using the AWS CLI. Use AWS Glue crawlers to catalog the
logs. Set up an AWS Glue connection for the DynamoDB table and set up an AWS Glue ETL job to enrich the data.
Store the enriched data in Amazon S3.
C. Configure the application to write the logs locally and use Amazon Kinesis Agent to send the data to Amazon Kinesis
Data Streams. Configure a Kinesis Data Analytics SQL application with the Kinesis data stream as the source. Join the
SQL application input stream with DynamoDB records, and then store the enriched output stream in Amazon S3 using
Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose.
D. Export the raw logs to Amazon S3 on an hourly basis using the AWS CLI. Use Apache Spark SQL on Amazon EMR
to read the logs from Amazon S3 and enrich the records with the data from DynamoDB. Store the enriched data in
Amazon S3.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A technology company is creating a dashboard that will visualize and analyze time-sensitive data. The data will come in
through Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose with the butter interval set to 60 seconds. The dashboard must support nearreal-time data.
Which visualization solution will meet these requirements?
A. Select Amazon Elasticsearch Service (Amazon ES) as the endpoint for Kinesis Data Firehose. Set up a Kibana
dashboard using the data in Amazon ES with the desired analyses and visualizations.
B. Select Amazon S3 as the endpoint for Kinesis Data Firehose. Read data into an Amazon SageMaker Jupyter
notebook and carry out the desired analyses and visualizations.
C. Select Amazon Redshift as the endpoint for Kinesis Data Firehose. Connect Amazon QuickSight with SPICE to
Amazon Redshift to create the desired analyses and visualizations.
D. Select Amazon S3 as the endpoint for Kinesis Data Firehose. Use AWS Glue to catalog the data and Amazon
Athena to query it. Connect Amazon QuickSight with SPICE to Athena to create the desired analyses and
visualizations.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A company needs to store objects containing log data in JSON format. The objects are generated by eight applications
running in AWS. Six of the applications generate a total of 500 KiB of data per second, and two of the applications can
generate up to 2 MiB of data per second.
A data engineer wants to implement a scalable solution to capture and store usage data in an Amazon S3 bucket. The
usage data objects need to be reformatted, converted to .csv format, and then compressed before they are stored in
Amazon S3. The company requires the solution to include the least custom code possible and has authorized the data
engineer to request a service quota increase if needed.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. Configure an Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose delivery stream for each application. Write AWS Lambda functions to
read log data objects from the stream for each application. Have the function perform reformatting and .csv conversion.
Enable compression on all the delivery streams.
B. Configure an Amazon Kinesis data stream with one shard per application. Write an AWS Lambda function to read
usage data objects from the shards. Have the function perform .csv conversion, reformatting, and compression of the
data. Have the function store the output in Amazon S3.
C. Configure an Amazon Kinesis data stream for each application. Write an AWS Lambda function to read usage data
objects from the stream for each application. Have the function perform .csv conversion, reformatting, and compression
of the data. Have the function store the output in Amazon S3.
D. Store usage data objects in an Amazon DynamoDB table. Configure a DynamoDB stream to copy the objects to an
S3 bucket. Configure an AWS Lambda function to be triggered when objects are written to the S3 bucket. Have the
function convert the objects into .csv format.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
An online retail company is migrating its reporting system to AWS. The company\\’s legacy system runs data processing
on online transactions using a complex series of nested Apache Hive queries. Transactional data is exported from the
online system to the reporting system several times a day. Schemas in the files are stable between updates.
A data analyst wants to quickly migrate the data processing to AWS, so any code changes should be minimized. To
keep storage costs low, the data analyst decides to store the data in Amazon S3. It is vital that the data from the reports
and associated analytics is completely up to date based on the data in Amazon S3.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. Create an AWS Glue Data Catalog to manage the Hive metadata. Create an AWS Glue crawler over Amazon S3 that
runs when data is refreshed to ensure that data changes are updated. Create an Amazon EMR cluster and use the
metadata in the AWS Glue Data Catalog to run Hive processing queries in Amazon EMR.
B. Create an AWS Glue Data Catalog to manage the Hive metadata. Create an Amazon EMR cluster with consistent
view enabled. Run emrfs sync before each analytics step to ensure data changes are updated. Create an EMR cluster
and use the metadata in the AWS Glue Data Catalog to run Hive processing queries in Amazon EMR.
C. Create an Amazon Athena table with CREATE TABLE AS SELECT (CTAS) to ensure data is refreshed from
underlying queries against the raw dataset. Create an AWS Glue Data Catalog to manage the Hive metadata over the
CTAS table. Create an Amazon EMR cluster and use the metadata in the AWS Glue Data Catalog to run Hive
processing queries in Amazon EMR.
D. Use an S3 Select query to ensure that the data is properly updated. Create an AWS Glue Data Catalog to manage
the Hive metadata over the S3 Select table. Create an Amazon EMR cluster and use the metadata in the AWS Glue
Data Catalog to run Hive processing queries in Amazon EMR.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A media company wants to perform machine learning and analytics on the data residing in its Amazon S3 data lake.
There are two data transformation requirements that will enable the consumers within the company to create reports:
1.
Daily transformations of 300 GB of data with different file formats landing in Amazon S3 at a scheduled time.
2.
One-time transformations of terabytes of archived data residing in the S3 data lake.
Which combination of solutions cost-effectively meets the company\\’s requirements for transforming the data? (Choose
three.)
A. For daily incoming data, use AWS Glue crawlers to scan and identify the schema.
B. For daily incoming data, use Amazon Athena to scan and identify the schema.
C. For daily incoming data, use Amazon Redshift to perform transformations.
D. For daily incoming data, use AWS Glue workflows with AWS Glue jobs to perform transformations.
E. For archived data, use Amazon EMR to perform data transformations.
F. For archived data, use Amazon SageMaker to perform data transformations.
Correct Answer: BCD

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