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AZ-900 Dumps 2023 | Master The Keys To Success

May 16, 2023May 16, 2023admin

In the ever-evolving world of Microsoft certifications, professionals need to stay ahead of the curve by acquiring the latest skills and certifications. Microsoft Azure Fundamentals practitioners also need it. You can master the key to success in the AZ-900 exam with the help of AZ-900 dumps 2023.

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Examdemosimulation.com shares the latest AZ-900 exam questions(free)!

15 AZ-900 exam practice tests with explanations of unique questions

Q1:

HOTSPOT

Select Yes if the statement is true for each of the following statements. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Q2:

HOTSPOT

Select Yes if the statement is true for each of the following statements. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Q3:

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

When planning to migrate a public website to Azure, you must plan to pay monthly usage costs.

Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed

B. Deploy a VPN

C. pay to transfer all the website data to Azure

D. reduce the number of connections to the website

Correct Answer: A

When planning to migrate a public website to Azure, you must plan to pay monthly usage costs. This is because Azure uses the pay-as-you-go model.

Incorrect Answers:

B: You do not need a VPN for Azure websites.

C: You do not pay to transfer data into Azure websites.

D: You do not need to reduce the number of connections to the website.

Q4:

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

An organization that hosts its infrastructure in a private cloud can decommission its data center.

A. No change is needed.

B. in a hybrid cloud

C. in the public cloud

D. on a Hyper-V host

Correct Answer: C

A private cloud is hosted in your data center. Therefore, you cannot close your data center if you are using a private cloud. A public cloud is hosted externally, for example, in Microsoft Azure. An organization hosting its public cloud infrastructure can close its data center.

Public cloud is the most common deployment model. In this case, you have no local hardware to manage or keep up-to-date everything runs on your cloud provider\’s hardware.

Microsoft Azure is an example of a public cloud provider. In a private cloud, you create a cloud environment in your own data center and provide self-service access to compute resources to users in your organization.

This offers a simulation of a public cloud to your users, but you remain entirely responsible for the purchase and maintenance of the hardware and software services you provide.

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/learn/modules/principles-cloud-computing/4-cloud-deployment-models

Q5:

You need to configure an Azure solution that meets the following requirements:

1. Secures websites from attacks

2. Generates reports that contain details of attempted attacks What should you include in the solution?

A. Azure Firewall

B. a network security group (NSG)

C. Azure Information Protection

D. DDoS protection

Correct Answer: D

DDoS is a type of attack that tries to exhaust application resources. The goal is to affect the application\’s availability and its ability to handle legitimate requests. DDoS attacks can be targeted at any endpoint that is publicly reachable through the internet.

Azure has two DDoS service offerings that provide protection from network attacks: DDoS Protection Basic and DDoS Protection Standard. DDoS Basic protection is integrated into the Azure platform by default and at no extra cost.

You have the option of paying for DDoS Standard. It has several advantages over the basic service, including logging, alerting, and telemetry. DDoS Standard can generate reports that contain details of attempted attacks as required in this question.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/ddos-best-practices

Q6:

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

Data that is stored in the Archive access tier of an Azure Storage account can be accessed at any time by using azcopy.exe.

A. No change is needed.

B. can only be read by using Azure Backup

C. must be restored before the data can be accessed

D. must be rehydrated before the data can be accessed

Correct Answer: A

Azure storage offers different access tiers: hot, cool, and archive.

The archive access tier has the lowest storage cost. But it has higher data retrieval costs compared to the hot and cool tiers. Data in the archive tier can take several hours to retrieve.

While a blob is in archive storage, the blob data is offline and can\’t be read, overwritten, or modified. To read or download a blob in the archive, you must first rehydrate it to an online tier.

Example usage scenarios for the archive access tier include:

Long-term backup, secondary backup, and archival datasets

Original (raw) data must be preserved, even after it has been processed into a final usable form. Compliance and archival data that needs to be stored for a long time and is hardly ever accessed.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-storage-tiers?tabs=azure- portal#archive-access-tier

Q7:

Select Yes if the information is true for each of the following statements. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Q8:

HOTSPOT

To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Azure Resource Manager templates provide a common platform for deploying objects to a cloud infrastructure and for implementing consistency across the Azure environment.

Azure policies are used to define rules for what can be deployed and how it should be deployed. Whilst this can help in ensuring consistency, Azure policies do not provide a common platform for deploying objects to a cloud infrastructure.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/overview

Q9:

You need to view a list of planned maintenance events that can affect the availability of an Azure subscription. Which blade should you use from the Azure portal? To answer, select the appropriate blade in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

On the Help and Support blade, there is a Service Health option. If you click Service Health, a new blade opens. The Service Health blade contains the Planned Maintenance link which opens a blade where you can view a list of planned maintenance events that can affect the availability of an Azure subscription.

Q10:

HOTSPOT

Select Yes if the statement is true for each of the following statements. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No

Azure firewall does not encrypt network traffic. It is used to block or allow traffic based on source/destination IP address, source/destination ports, and protocol.

Box 2: No

A network security group does not encrypt network traffic. It works in a similar way to a firewall in that it is used to block or allow traffic based on source/destination IP address, source/destination ports, and protocol.

Box 3: No

The question is rather vague as it would depend on the configuration of the host on the Internet. Windows Server does come with a VPN client and it also supports other encryption methods such as IPSec encryption or SSL/TLS so it could encrypt the traffic if the Internet host was configured to require or accept the encryption.

However, the VM could not encrypt the traffic to an Internet host that is not configured to require encryption.

References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/azure-security-data-encryption-best-practices#protect-data-in-transit

Q11:

You have an Azure application that uses the services shown in the following table.

How should you calculate the composite SLA for the application?

A. 0.999 * 0.9999 = 0.9989001 = 99.89001%

B. 0.999 / 0.9999 = 0.9991 = 99.91%

C. Max(0.999, 0.9999) = 0.9999 = 99.99%

D. Min(0.999, 0.9999) = 0.999 = 99.9%

Correct Answer: A

Composite SLAs involve multiple services supporting an application, each with differing levels of availability. For example, consider an App Service web app that writes to Azure SQL Database. At the time of this writing, these Azure services have the following SLAs:

1. App Service web apps = 99.95%

2. SQL Database = 99.99%

What is the maximum downtime you would expect for this application? If either service fails, the whole application fails. The probability of each service failing is independent, so the composite SLA for this application is 99.95% × 99.99% = 99.94%.

That\’s lower than the individual SLAs, which isn’t surprising because an application that relies on multiple services has more potential failure points.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/reliability/requirements#understand-service-level-agreements

Q12:

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

You have several virtual machines in an Azure subscription. You create a new subscription. The virtual machines cannot be moved to the new subscription.

A. No change is needed

B. The virtual machines can be moved to the new subscription

C. The virtual machines can be moved to the new subscription-only if they are all in the same resource group

D. The virtual machines can be moved to the new subscription-only if they run Windows Server 2016.

Correct Answer: B

You can move a VM and its associated resources to a different subscription by using the Azure portal. Moving between subscriptions can be handy if you originally created a VM in a personal subscription and now want to move it to your company\’s subscription to continue your work.

You do not need to start the VM in order to move it and it should continue to run during the move.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/move-vm

Q13:

HOTSPOT

Select Yes if the statement is true for each of the following statements. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Q14:

HOTSPOT

To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Public Preview means that the service is in public beta and can be tried out by anyone with an Azure subscription. Services in public preview are often offered at a discount price. Public previews are excluded from SLAs and in some cases, no support is offered.

Incorrect Answers:

1. Services in the private preview are available only to selected people who have signed up for the private preview program.

2. Services in development are not available to the public.

3. Services provided under an Enterprise Agreement (EA) subscription are available only to the subscription owner.

Reference: https://www.neowin.net/news/several-more-azure-services-now-available-in-private-public-preview/

Q15:

DRAG DROP

An organization plans to deploy Microsoft 365 in a hybrid scenario.

You need to provide a recommendation based on some common identity and access management scenarios. The solution must minimize costs.

Match each solution to its appropriate scenario. To answer, drag the appropriate solutions from the column on the left to the scenarios on the right. Each solution may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/azure-ad-choose-authn https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-password-hash-synchronization https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-pta

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200-901 Dumps 2023 [Updated] Jumps Over Exam Obstacles

April 11, 2023April 11, 2023admin

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Practical exercises (most important, and must)

It is necessary to do practice questions, not only to promote knowledge (Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms) understanding but also to increase self-confidence.

April/2023 new 200–901 DEVASC exam questions:

Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the code snippets from the bottom onto the blanks in the Python script to retrieve a list of network devices from Cisco DNA Center. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 2:

FILL IN THE BLANK

Cisco DNA provides the capability to send an HTTP _______________ request to the API endpoint https://DNA-c_API_ADDRESS/api/vi/network-device/ and receive the network __________ list in __________ format.

A. Check the answer in the explanation.

Correct Answer: A

GET, device, JSON Solution below as

Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure a load balancer server. The engineer prepares a script to automate workflow by using Bash. The script installs the nginx package, moves to the /optAtginx directory, and reads the sites M We

(or further processing Based on the script workflow, which process is being automated within the loop by using the information mi sites text?

A. creating a new Me Based on template .conf in the /etc/ngin/sites_enabled directory for each lie in the site’s txt file. and then changing the file execution permission.

B. creating a Me per each of the on-site text with the information in template conf. creating a link for the previously created file. and then change the ownership of the created files

C. using the content of the file to create the template conf file. creating an Iink from the created file to the /etc/nginx/files.enabled. and then changing the file execution permissions.

D. using the information in the file to create a set of empty files in the /etching/sites_enabled directory and then assigning the owner of the file.

Correct Answer: B

Question 4:

Which API must an engineer use to change a netmask on a Cisco IOS XE device?

A. Meraki

B. SD-WAN

C. RESTCONF/YANG

D. DNAC

Correct Answer: C

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

An API call is constructed to retrieve the inventory in XML format by using the API. The response to the call is 401 Unauthorized. Which two headers must he add to the API call? (Choose two.)

A. Bearer-Token: dXNlcm5hbWU6cGFzc3dvemQ=

B. Content-Type: application/XML

C. Authentication: Bearer dXNlcm5hbWU6cGFzc3dvemQ=

D. Accept: application/XML

E. Authorization: Bearer dXNlcm5hbWU6cGFzc3dvemQ=

Correct Answer: DE

A. is Incorrect because there is no Bearer-Token header in HTTP

B. is Incorrect, because the image shows Method GET, and Content-Type header defines the type of data you use in the payload of a Method POST

C. is incorrect, because Authentication is not the correct HTTP header

D. is correct, because Accept header defines the expected response data format of a Method GET

E. is correct, because the header Authorization is the one used for OAuth and Basic Auth

Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this Ansible playbook on an IOS router?

A. A new running configuration is pushed to the IOS router.

B. The start-up configuration of the IOS router is copied to a local folder.

C. The current running configuration of the IOS router is backed up.

D. A new start-up configuration is copied to the IOS router.

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which code snippet represents the sequence.

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

What is the benefit of using a code review process in application development?

A. accelerates the deployment of new features in an existing application

B. provides version control during code development

C. enables the quick deployment of new code

D. eliminates common mistakes during development

Correct Answer: D

Question 9:

A team of developers is responsible for a network orchestration application in the company. The responsibilities also include:

1. developing and improving the application in a continuous manner

2. deployment of the application and management of CI/CD frameworks

3. monitoring the usage and problems and managing the performance improvements Which principle best describes this DevOps practice?

A. responsible for IT operations

B. automation of processes

C. end-to-end responsibility

D. quality assurance checks

Correct Answer: C

Question 10:

DRAG DROP

An engineer must make changes on a network device through the management platform API. The engineer prepares a script to send the request and analyze the response, check headers, and read the body according to information inside the response headers.

Drag and drop the HTTP header values from the left onto the elements of an HTTP response on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 11:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the network automation interfaces from the left onto the transport protocols that they support on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 12:

Which principle is a value from the manifesto for Agile software development?

A. processes and tools over teams and interactions

B. detailed documentation of working software

C. adhering to a plan over responding to requirements

D. customer collaboration over contract negotiation

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/global/en_hk/solutions/collaboration/files/ agile_product_development.pdf

Question 13:

A developer has created a new image to use in a Docker build and has added a tag for the image by using the command:

$ docker tag 84fe411926287 local/app:0.4

Which command must be executed next to build the Docker image using the tag?

A. $ docker build -p local/app:0.4

B. $ docker run -t local/app:0.4

C. $ docker run -p local/app:0.4

D. $ docker build -t local/app:0.4

Correct Answer: D

Question 14:

Several teams at a company are developing a new CRM solution to track customer interactions with the goal of improving customer satisfaction and driving higher revenue. The proposed solution contains these components:

MySQL database that stores data about customers

2. HTML5 and JavaScript UI that runs on Apache

3. REST API is written in Python

What are the two advantages of applying the MVC design pattern to the development of the solution? (Choose two.)

A. to enable multiple views of the same data to be presented to different groups of users

B. to provide separation between the view and the model by ensuring that all logic is separated out into the controller

C. to ensure data consistency, which requires that changes to the view are also made to the model

D. to ensure that only one instance of the data model can be created

E. to provide only a single view of the data to ensure consistency

Correct Answer: AB

Question 15:

Which tool simulates a network that runs Cisco equipment?

A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure

B. VMware

C. Docker

D. CML

Correct Answer: D

200-901 dumps	type	latest update
free download	PDF	https://drive.google.com/file/d/1ofGbMT31HB9tHyx0v4Rb475QV2TX-zPh/view?usp=share_link

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SAA-C03 Exam Dumps Update | Don’t Be Afraid To Choose SAA-C03

March 10, 2023March 10, 2023admin

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Question 1 of 15

A security team wants to limit access to specific services or actions in all of the team\’s AWS accounts. All accounts belong to a large organization in AWS Organizations. The solution must be scalable and there must be a single point where permissions can be maintained.

What should a solutions architect do to accomplish this?

A. Create an ACL to provide access to the services or actions.

B. Create a security group to allow accounts and attach it to user groups.

C. Create cross-account roles in each account to deny access to the services or actions.

D. Create a service control policy in the root organizational unit to deny access to the services or actions.

Correct Answer: D

Service control policies (SCPs) are one type of policy that you can use to manage your organization.

SCPs offer central control over the maximum available permissions for all accounts in your organization, allowing you to ensure your accounts stay within your organization\’s access control guidelines.

See https://docs.aws.amazon.com/organizations/latest/userguide/orgs_manage_policies_scp.html.

Question 2 of 15

A company has a highly dynamic batch processing job that uses many Amazon EC2 instances to complete it. The job is stateless in nature, can be started and stopped at any given time with no negative impact, and typically takes upwards of 60 minutes total to complete.

The company has asked a solutions architect to design a scalable and cost-effective solution that meets the requirements of the job. What should the solutions architect recommend?

A. Implement EC2 Spot Instances

B. Purchase EC2 Reserved Instances

C. Implement EC2 On-Demand Instances

D. Implement the processing on AWS Lambda

Correct Answer: A

Cant be implemented on Lambda because the timeout for Lambda is 15mins and the Job takes 60minutes to complete

Question 3 of 15

A company has an application that provides marketing services to stores. The services are based on previous purchases by store customers.

The stores upload transaction data to the company through SFTP, and the data is processed and analyzed to generate new marketing offers. Some of the files can exceed 200 GB in size.

Recently, the company discovered that some of the stores have uploaded files that contain personally identifiable information (PII) that should not have been included. The company wants administrators to be alerted if PII is shared again. The company also wants to automate remediation.

What should a solutions architect do to meet these requirements with the LEAST development effort?

A. Use an Amazon S3 bucket as a secure transfer point. Use Amazon Inspector to scan objects in the bucket. If objects contain Pll. trigger an S3 Lifecycle policy to remove the objects that contain Pll.

B. Use an Amazon S3 bucket as a secure transfer point. Use Amazon Macie to scan the objects in the bucket. If objects contain Pll. Use Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) to trigger a notification to the administrators to remove the objects mat contain Pll.

C. Implement custom scanning algorithms in an AWS Lambda function. Trigger the function when objects are loaded into the bucket. It objects contain Rll. use Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) to trigger a notification to the administrators to remove the objects that contain Pll.

D. Implement custom scanning algorithms in an AWS Lambda function. Trigger the function when objects are loaded into the bucket. If objects contain Pll. use Amazon Simple Email Service (Amazon STS) to trigger a notification to the administrators and trigger on S3 Lifecycle policy to remove the objects mot contain PII.

Correct Answer: B

Amazon Macie is a data security and data privacy service that uses machine learning (ML) and pattern matching to discover and protect your sensitive data https://aws.amazon.com/es/macie/faq/

Question 4 of 15

A company is concerned about the security of its public web application due to recent web attacks. The application uses an Application Load Balancer (ALB). A solutions architect must reduce the risk of DDoS attacks against the application.

What should the solutions architect do to meet this requirement?

A. Add an Amazon Inspector agent to the ALB.

B. Configure Amazon Macie to prevent attacks.

C. Enable AWS Shield Advanced to prevent attacks.

D. Configure Amazon GuardDuty to monitor the ALB.

Correct Answer: C

AWS Shield Advanced

Question 5 of 15

A company is developing an application that provides order shipping statistics for retrieval by a REST API. The company wants to extract the shipping statistics, organize the data into an easy-to-read HTML format, and send the report to several email addresses at the same time every morning.

Which combination of steps should a solutions architect take to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Configure the application to send the data to Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose.

B. Use Amazon Simple Email Service (Amazon SES) to format the data and send the report by email.

C. Create an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) scheduled event that invokes an AWS Glue job to query the application\’s API for the data.

D. Create an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) scheduled event that invokes an AWS Lambda function to query the application\’s API for the data.

E. Store the application data in Amazon S3. Create an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic as an S3 event destination to send the report by

Correct Answer: BD

You can use SES to format the report in HTML.

Not C because there is no direct connector available for Glue to connect to the internet world (REST API), you can set up a VPC, with a public and a private subnet.

BandD is the only 2 correct options. If you are choosing option E then you missed the daily morning schedule requirement mentioned in the question which can’t be achieved with S3 events for SNS. Event Bridge can be used to configure

scheduled events (every morning in this case). Option B fulfills the email in HTML format requirement (by SES) and D fulfills every morning schedule event requirement (by EventBridge)

https://docs.aws.amazon.com/ses/latest/dg/send-email-formatted.html

Question 6 of 15

A company has an application that runs on Amazon EC2 instances and uses an Amazon Aurora database. The EC2 instances connect to the database by using user names and passwords that are stored locally in a file. The company wants to minimize the operational overhead of credential management.

What should a solutions architect do to accomplish this goal?

A. Use AWS Secrets Manager. Turn on automatic rotation.

B. Use AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store. Turn on automatic rotation.

C. Create an Amazon S3 bucket lo store objects that are encrypted with an AWS Key C. Management Service (AWS KMS) encryption key. Migrate the credential file to the S3 bucket. Point the application to the S3 bucket.

D. Create an encrypted Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume (or each EC2 instance. Attach the new EBS volume to each EC2 instance. Migrate the credential file to the new EBS volume. Point the application to the new EBS volume.

Correct Answer: A

https://aws.amazon.com/cn/blogs/security/how-to-connect-to-aws-secrets-manager-service-within-a-virtual-private-cloud/ https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/security/rotate-amazon-rds-database-credentials-automatically-with-aws-secrets-manager/

Question 7 of 15

A company wants to run a gaming application on Amazon EC2 instances that are part of an Auto Scaling group in the AWS Cloud. The application will transmit data by using UDP packets. The company wants to ensure that the application can scale out and in as traffic increases and decreases.

What should a solutions architect do to meet these requirements?

A. Attach a Network Load Balancer to the Auto Scaling group

B. Attach an Application Load Balancer to the Auto Scaling group.

C. Deploy an Amazon Route 53 record set with a weighted policy to route traffic appropriately

D. Deploy a NAT instance that is configured with port forwarding to the EC2 instances in the Auto Scaling group.

Correct Answer: A

Question 8 of 15

A company is planning on deploying a newly built application on AWS in a default VPC. The application will consist of a web layer and a database layer. The web server was created in public subnets, and the MySQL database was created in private subnets.

All subnets are created with the default network ACL settings, and the default security group in the VPC will be replaced with new custom security groups.

A. Create a database server security group with inbound and outbound rules for MySQL port 3306 traffic to and from anywhere (0.0.0.0/0).

B. Create a database server security group with an inbound rule for MySQL port 3300 and specify the source as a web server security group.

C. Create a web server security group within an inbound allow rule for HTTPS port 443 traffic from anywhere (0.0.0.0/0) and an inbound deny rule for IP range 182. 20.0.0/16.

D. Create a web server security group with an inbound rule for HTTPS port 443 traffic from anywhere (0.0.0.0/0). Create network ACL inbound and outbound deny rules for IP range 182. 20.0.0/16.

E. Create a web server security group with inbound and outbound rules for HTTPS port 443 traffic to and from anywhere (0.0.0.0/0). Create a network ACL inbound deny rule for IP range 182. 20.0.0/16.

Correct Answer: BD

Question 9 of 15

A company is preparing to launch a public-facing web application in the AWS Cloud. The architecture consists of Amazon EC2 instances within a VPC behind an Elastic Load Balancer (ELB).

A third-party service is used for the DNS. The company\’s solutions architect must recommend a solution to detect and protect against large-scale DDoS attacks.

Which solution meets these requirements?

A. Enable Amazon GuardDuty on the account.

B. Enable Amazon Inspector on the EC2 instances.

C. Enable AWS Shield and assign Amazon Route 53 to it.

D. Enable AWS Shield Advanced and assign the ELB to it.

Correct Answer: D

https://aws.amazon.com/shield/faqs/

AWS Shield Advanced provides expanded DDoS attack protection for your Amazon EC2 instances, Elastic Load Balancing load balancers, CloudFront distributions, Route 53 hosted zones, and AWS Global Accelerator standard accelerators.

Question 10 of 15

A company has an on-premises application that generates a large amount of time-sensitive data that is backed up to Amazon S3. The application has grown and there are user complaints about internet bandwidth limitations.

A solutions architect needs to design a long-term solution that allows for both timely backups to Amazon S3 and with minimal impact on internet connectivity for internal users.

Which solution meets these requirements?

A. Establish AWS VPN connections and proxy all traffic through a VPC gateway endpoint

B. Establish a new AWS Direct Connect connection and direct backup traffic through this new connection.

C. Order daily AWS Snowball devices Load the data onto the Snowball devices and return the devices to AWS each day.

D. Submit a support ticket through the AWS Management Console Request the removal of S3 service limits from the account.

Correct Answer: B

A: VPN also goes through the internet and uses the bandwidth

C: daily Snowball transfer is not really a long-term solution when it comes to cost and efficiency

D: S3 limits don\’t change anything here

Question 11 of 15

A company has a Microsoft NET application that runs on an on-premises Windows Server Trie application stores data by using an Oracle Database Standard Edition server.

The company is planning a migration to AWS and wants to minimize development changes while moving the application The AWS application environment should be highly available

Which combination of actions should the company take to meet these requirements? (Select TWO )

A. Refactor the application as serverless with AWS Lambda functions running NET Cote

B. Rehost the application in AWS Elastic Beanstalk with the NET platform in a Mulft-AZ deployment

C. Replatform the application to run on Amazon EC2 with the Amazon Linux Amazon Machine Image (AMI)

D. Use AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS) to migrate from the Oracle database to Amazon DynamoDB in a Multi-AZ deployment

E. Use AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS) to migrate from the Oracle database to Oracle on Amazon RDS in a Multi-AZ deployment

Correct Answer: BE

B- According to the AWS documentation, the simplest way to migrate .NET applications to AWS is to repost the applications using either AWS Elastic Beanstalk or Amazon EC2. E – RDS with Oracle is a no-brainer

Question 12 of 15

A company is building a containerized application on-premises and decides to move the application to AWS. The application will have thousands of users soon after li is deployed. The Company Is unsure how to manage the deployment of containers at scale.

The company needs to deploy the containerized application in a highly available architecture that minimizes operational overhead.

Which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Store container images In an Amazon Elastic Container Registry (Amazon ECR) repository. Use an Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) cluster with the AWS Fargate launch type to run the containers. Use target tracking to scale automatically based on demand.

B. Store container images in an Amazon Elastic Container Registry (Amazon ECR) repository. Use an Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) cluster with the Amazon EC2 launch type to run the containers. Use target tracking to scale automatically based on demand.

C. Store container images in a repository that runs on an Amazon EC2 instance. Run the containers on EC2 instances that are spread across multiple Availability Zones. Monitor the average CPU utilization in Amazon CloudWatch. Launch new EC2 instances as needed

D. Create an Amazon EC2 Amazon Machine Image (AMI) that contains the container image Launch EC2 Instances in an Auto Scaling group across multiple Availability Zones. Use an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to scale out EC2 instances when the average CPU utilization threshold is breached.

Correct Answer: A

Fargate is the only serverless option.

Question 13 of 15

A company is implementing a new business application. The application runs on two Amazon EC2 instances and uses an Amazon S3 bucket for document storage. A solutions architect needs to ensure that the EC2 instances can access the S3 bucket.

What should the solutions architect do to meet this requirement?

A. Create an IAM role that grants access to the S3 bucket. Attach the role to the EC2 instances.

B. Create an IAM policy that grants access to the S3 bucket. Attach the policy to the EC2 instances.

C. Create an IAM group that grants access to the S3 bucket. Attach the group to the EC2 instances.

D. Create an IAM user that grants access to the S3 bucket. Attach the user account to the EC2 instances.

Correct Answer: A

Always remember that you should associate IAM roles to EC2 instances https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/knowledge-center/ec2-instance-access-s3-bucket/

Question 14 of 15

The company hosts more than 300 global websites and applications. The company requires a platform to analyze more than 30 TB of clickstream data each day.

What should a solutions architect do to transmit and process the clickstream data?

A. Design an AWS Data Pipeline to archive the data to an Amazon S3 bucket and run an Amazon EMR duster with the data to generate analytics

B. Create an Auto Scaling group of Amazon EC2 instances to process the data and send it to an Amazon S3 data lake for Amazon Redshift to use tor analysis

C. Cache the data to Amazon CloudFront: Store the data in an Amazon S3 bucket When an object is added to the S3 bucket, run an AWS Lambda function to process the data for analysis.

D. Collect the data from Amazon Kinesis Data Streams. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to transmit the data to an Amazon S3 data lake Load the data in Amazon Redshift for analysis

Correct Answer: D

https://aws.amazon.com/es/blogs/big-data/real-time-analytics-with-amazon-redshift-streaming-ingestion/

Question 15 of 15

A company wants to run applications in containers in the AWS Cloud. These applications are stateless and can tolerate disruptions within the underlying infrastructure. The company needs a solution that minimizes cost and operational overhead.

What should a solutions architect do to meet these requirements?

A. Use Spot Instances in an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group to run the application containers.

B. Use Spot Instances in an Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) managed node group.

C. Use On-Demand Instances in an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group to run the application containers.

D. Use On-Demand Instances in an Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) managed node group.

Correct Answer: A

https://aws.amazon.com/cn/blogs/compute/cost-optimization-and-resilience-eks-with-spot-instances/

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[2022 Update] 100% Success | Free Share Pass4itsure Cisco 300-810 Exam Practice Questions

December 13, 2022December 13, 2022admin

Just now, updated 300-810 dumps, (new, real and valid material) to better serve everyone and help you pass the Cisco (CLICA) 300-810 exam.

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Dumps Version	Total Questions	Release Date
300-810 dumps	84	January 13, 2021
latest 300-810 dumps	160	Dec 07, 2022

Latest Cisco 300-810 Exam Questions [2022] – Pass4itsure

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https://drive.google.com/file/d/1dL7Wq2ds90XAdQAM0ujE_IbnHHeD6agt/view?usp=share_link

New Update Cisco (CLICA) 300-810 Exam Practice Questions

New Question 1:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the steps from the left into the correct order on the right that describes the flow of presence updates when a user manually sets the presence status in Cisco Jabber. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

New Question 2:

Which two steps are needed to configure high availability in Cisco IM and presence? (Choose two.)

A. Enable the Failover Check box

B. Configure the CUP administrator

C. Assign the subscriber to the redundancy group

D. Select the enable high availability checkbox and save the configuration change

E. Configure the CUP AXL user.

Correct Answer: CD

New Question 3:

Which statement describes the role of AXL communications in the BLF Plug-in Service of the Cisco Unified Attendant Console?

A. AXL communications allow registered attendants to log in to Cisco Unified Communications Manager and receive calls.

B. The AXL communications enable Device Resolution Manager to resolve the device statuses of operator and system devices.

C. The AXL communications are required after installation to verify that the specified CTI manager or managers and Cisco Unified Attendant Console versions match.

D. The AXL communications are required after installation to verify that the specified CTI manager or managers and Cisco Unified CM versions.

Correct Answer: B

“Part of the Cisco Unified Attendant Console Advanced BLF Plug-in service known as Device Resolution Manager (DRM) uses AXL to communicate with Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The AXL communications enable DRM to resolve the BLFs of operator and system devices, and to synchronize system devices within the Cisco Unified Communications Manager database.”

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucmac/cuaca/12_0_4/admin_ guide/CUACA_AG_120402.pdf

New Question 4:

What submits credentials to the LDAP server during a call that uses SAML SSO?

A. Cisco UCM server

B. Service provider

C. Browser-based Client

D. IdP

Correct Answer: D

New Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

After receiving a new desk phone, the Jabber user can no longer make calls via phone control. The help desk collected the user\’s Jabber problem report and verified that they had the correct Cisco UCM CTI permissions. Which configuration must be changed to correct this issue?

A. Verify that the desk phone device has Allow Control of Device from CTI enabled.

B. Verify that the Cisco UCM service profile has Cisco UCM CTI servers configured.

C. Verify that the user\’s desk phone device is listed as a controlled device in the Cisco UCM end-user configuration

D. Verify that the device line configuration has Allow Control of Device from CTI enabled.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 6:

A collaboration engineer restored a failed primary node of an active/standby IM and presence subcluster with the server Recovery manager set to defaults. The engineer notices that the user is still assigned to the secondary server. Which action resolves this issue?

A. Select the Fallback button under Presence Redundancy Group Configuration

B. Wait for 30 minutes for automatic fallback to occur

C. Modify the DNS SRV records to point back to the primary server

D. Restart the services on the primary server

Correct Answer: B

New Question 7:

An administrator is configuring digital networking between Cisco Unity Connection clusters. What are the two requirements for the configuration? {Choose two.)

end-user credentials

A. IP address/FODN of LDAP server

B. IP address/FQDN of Cisco UCM servers

C. system administrator credentials

D. IP address/FODN of the Cisco Unity Connection servers

Correct Answer: CD

New Question 8:

Which SSO authentication method requires no action from the user when the session token times out?

A. web form

B. smart card

C. external database

D. local authentication

Correct Answer: A

New Question 9:

An engineer is importing users into Cisco Unity Connection using AXL and discovers that some users are not listed in the import view. Which action should be taken to resolve this issue?

A. Configure the user’s primary extension to their directory number.

B. Configure the user digest credentials to match the user password.

C. Configure the user access control group assignment to Standard CTI Enabled.

D. Configure the username and password in LDAP.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 10:

What is a step in the SAML SSO process?

A. The IdP redirects the SAML response to the browser.

B. The LDAP server extracts the assertion.

C. The service provider issues an authentication challenge to the browser.

D. The browser issues an HTTPS POST request to the IP.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 11:

Refer to Exhibit.

An engineer is troubleshooting operation performance in the network. Which account should be taken to restore high availability in the sub-cluster?

A. Start all critical services on the second node, and select the Fallback button in the “Presence Redundancy Group Configuration”

B. Go to “Presence Redundancy Group Configuration” on the Cisco UCM Administration page and select the Fallback button.

C. Start all critical services on both nodes and select “rebalance users” in the “Presence User Assignment”

D. Go to “Presence User Agreement” on the Cisco UCM Administration page and select “rebalance users” for all users.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

Cisco UCM is integrated with the Cisco Unity connection via a SIP truck and is configured using a globalized dial plan (directory numbers are configured with “*”). Using cisco best practices, which implementation allows call transfers to internal directory numbers but not to PSTN numbers?

A. remove PSTN-PT from voicemail_CSS

B. change the order of partitions to put GLOBAL-INTERNAL-PT first in Voicemail_CSS

C. create a BLOCK-PSTN-PT partition and add it to Voicemail_CSS

D. block pattern +* in the Cisco Unity restriction table

Correct Answer: A

New Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit

Do users complain that the message waiting for light on the IP phone does not light up when receiving a new voicemail With which codec must the engineer configure a dial peer on Cisco UCME for MW1 traffic to resolve this issue?

A. G.729r8

B. G.729ar8

C. G.711ulaw

D. G.711alaw

Correct Answer: C

New Question 14:

Which Cisco IM and Presence service must be activated and running for IM Presence to successfully integrate with Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A. Cisco DHCP Monitor Service

B. Cisco AXL Web Service

C. Self-Provisioning IVR

D. Cisco XCP Authentication Service

Correct Answer: B

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/im_presence/configAdminGuide/12_0_1/cup0_b_config-admin-guide-imp-1201/cup0_b_config-admin-guide-imp-1201_chapter_0100.html

New Question 15:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the steps for SAML SSO authentication from the left into the order on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/SAML_SSO_deployment_guide/12_5_1/cucm_b_saml-sso-deployment-guide-12_5/cucm_b_saml-sso-deployment-guide-12_5_chapter_01.html

Cisco 300-810 Related Certifications

Cisco Certified Network Professional CCNP Certification
Cisco Certified Network Professional Collaboration CCNP Collaboration Certification

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SAA-C02 Dumps [Latest Version]: Useful AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate Prepare Materials

September 26, 2022September 26, 2022admin

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The true SAA-C02 exam is for anyone with a year or more of hands-on experience designing usable, cost-effective, fault-tolerant, and scalable distributed systems on AWS. You will need to complete the exam in 130 minutes and answer 65 questions. The type of question can be multiple choices or multiple answers. It costs $150 to take the exam.

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(SAA-C02 Free Dumps) AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate Exam Questions Answers: 2022.9

Q1 NEW.

A company has an AWS Glue extract. transform, and load (ETL) job that runs every day at the same time. The job processes XML data that is in an Amazon S3 bucket. New data is added to the S3 bucket every day.

A solutions architect notices that AWS Glue is processing all the data during each run. What should the solutions architect do to prevent AWS Glue from reprocessing old data?

A. Edit the job to use job bookmarks.
B. Edit the job to delete data after the data is processed
C. Edit the job by setting the number of workers field to 1.
D. Use a FindMatches machine learning (ML) transform.

Correct Answer: B

Q2 New.

A company captures ordered clickstream data from multiple websites and uses batch processing to analyze the data. The company receives 100 million event records, all approximately 1 KB in size, each day. The company loads the data into Amazon Redshift each night, and business analysts consume the data.

The company wants to move toward near-real-time data processing for timely insights. The solution should process the streaming data while requiring the least possible operational overhead. Which combination of AWS services will meet these requirements MOST cost-effectively? (Choose two.)

A. Amazon EC2
B. AWS Batch
C. Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)
D. Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose
E. Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics

Correct Answer: BC

Q3 New.

A company is planning to host its compute-intensive applications on Amazon EC2 instances. The majority of the network traffic will be between these applications The company needs a solution that minimizes latency and maximizes network throughput

The underlying hardware for the EC2 instances must not be shared with any other company Which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Launch EC2 instances as Dedicated Hosts in a cluster placement group
B. Launch EC2 instances as Dedicated Hosts in a partition placement group
C. Launch EC2 instances as Dedicated Instances in a cluster placement group
D. Launch EC2 instances as Dedicated Instances in a partition placement group

Correct Answer: A

Q4 New.

A solutions architect is working on optimizing a legacy document management application running on Microsoft a network file share. The chief information officer wants to reduce the on-premises data center footprint and minimize storage by moving on-premises storage to AWS.

What should the solution architect do to meet these requirements?

A. Set up an AWS Storage Gateway file gateway.
B. Set up Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS).
C. Set up AWS Storage Gateway as a volume gateway.
D. Set up an Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume.

Correct Answer: A

Q5 New.

Cost Explorer is showing charges higher than expected for Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volumes connected to application servers in a production account A significant portion of the changes from Amazon EBS are from volumes that were created as Provisioned IOPS SSD (io1) volume types Controlling costs is the highest priority for
this application.

Which steps should the user take to analyze and reduce the EBS costs without incurring any application downtime\\’? (Select TWO)

A. Use the Amazon EC2 ModifylnstanceAttribute action to enable EBS optimization on the application server instances
B. Use the Amazon CloudWatch GetMetricData action to evaluate the read-write operations and read/ write bytes of each volume
C. Use the Amazon EC2 ModifyVoiume action to reduce the size of the underutilized 101 volumes
D. Use the Amazon EC2 ModifyVolume action to change the volume type of the underutilized io1 volumes to General Purpose SSD (gp2)
E. Use an Amazon S3 PutBucketPolicy action to migrate existing volume snapshots to Amazon S3 Glacier

Correct Answer: AD

Q6 New.

A company has a service that produces event data. The company wants to use AWS to process the event data as it is received. The data is written in a specific order that
must be maintained throughout processing The company wants to implement a solution that minimizes operational overhead.

How should a solution architect accomplish this?

A. Create an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) FIFO queue to hold messages. Set up an AWS Lambda function to process messages from the queue.
B. Create an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic to deliver notifications containing payloads to process. Configure an AWS Lambda function as a subscriber
C. Create an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) standard queue to hold messages Set up an AWS Lambda function 😮 process messages from the queue independently
D. Create an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic to deliver notifications containing payloads to process Configure an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue as a subscriber.

Correct Answer: A

Q7 New.

A company runs a web-based portal that provides users with global breaking news, local alerts, and weather updates. The portal delivers each user a personalized view by using a mixture of static and dynamic content Content is served over HTTPS through an API server running on an Amazon EC2 instance behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB).

The company wants the portal to provide this content to its users across the world as quickly as possible. How should a solutions architect design the application to ensure the LEAST amount of latency for all users?

A. Deploy the application stack in a single AWS Region Use Amazon CloudFront to serve all static and dynamic content by specifying the ALB as an origin
B. Deploy the application stack in two AWS Regions Use an Amazon Route 53 latency routing policy to serve all content from the ALB in the closest Region.
C. Deploy the application stack in a single AWS Region Use Amazon CloudFront to serve the static content Serve the dynamic content directly from the ALB.
D. Deploy the application stack in two AWS Regions Use an Amazon Route 53 geolocation routing policy to serve all content from the ALB in the closest Region.

Correct Answer: A

Q8 New.

A company uses on-premises servers to host its applications. The company is running out of storage capacity. The applications use both block storage and NFS storage. The company needs a high-performing solution that supports local caching without re-architecting its existing applications.

Which combination of actions should a solutions architect take to meet these requirements? (Select TWO.)

A. Mount Amazon S3 as a file system to the on-premises servers.
B. Deploy an AWS Storage Gateway file gateway to replace NFS storage
C. Deploy AWS Snowball Edge to provision NFS mounts to on-premises servers.
D. Deploy an AWS Storage Gateway volume gateway to replace the block storage.
E. Deploy Amazon Elastic Fife System (Amazon EFS) volumes and mount them to on-premises servers.

Correct Answer: BD

Q9 New.

A company is using a centralized AWS account to store log data in various Amazon S3 buckets. A solutions architect needs to ensure that the data is encrypted at rest before the data is uploaded to the S3 buckets. The data also must be encrypted in transit.

Which solution meets these requirements?

A. Use client-side encryption to encrypt the data that is being uploaded to the S3 buckets.
B. Use server-side encryption to encrypt the data that is being uploaded to the S3 buckets.
C. Create bucket policies that require the use of server-side encryption with S3-managed encryption keys (SSE-S3) for S3 uploads.
D. Enable the security option to encrypt the S3 buckets through the use of a default AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) key.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/userguide/UsingEncryption.html

Q10 New.

Organizers for a global event want to put daily reports online as static HTML pages The pages are expected to generate millions of views from users around the world The files are stored in an Amazon S3 bucket A solutions architect has been asked to design an efficient and effective solution.

Which action should the solutions architect take to accomplish this?

A. Generate pre-signed URLs for the files
B. Use cross-Region replication to all Regions
C. Use the geo proximity feature of Amazon Route 53
D. Use Amazon CloudFront with the S3 bucket as its origin

Correct Answer: D

Using Amazon S3 Origins, MediaPackage Channels, and Custom Origins for Web Distributions Using Amazon S3 Buckets for Your Origin When you use Amazon S3 as an origin for your distribution, you place any objects that you want CloudFront to deliver in an Amazon S3 bucket.

You can use any method that is supported by Amazon S3 to get your objects into Amazon S3, for example, the Amazon S3 console or API, or a third-party tool. You can create a hierarchy in your bucket to store the objects, just as you would with any other Amazon S3 bucket.

Using an existing Amazon S3 bucket as your CloudFront origin server doesn\’t change the bucket in any way; you can still use it as you normally would to store and access Amazon S3 objects at the standard Amazon S3 price. You incur regular Amazon S3 charges for storing the objects in the bucket.

Using Amazon S3 Buckets Configured as Website Endpoints for Your Origin You
can set up an Amazon S3 bucket that is configured as a website endpoint as a custom origin with CloudFront. When you configure your CloudFront distribution, for the origin, enter the Amazon S3 static website hosting endpoint for your bucket.

This value appears in the Amazon S3 console, on the Properties tab, and in the Static website hosting pane.

For example http://bucket-name.s3-website-region.amazonaws.com

For more information about specifying Amazon S3 static website endpoints, see Website endpoints in the Amazon Simple Storage Service Developer Guide. When you
specify the bucket name in this format as your origin, you can use Amazon S3 redirects and Amazon S3 custom error documents.

For more information about Amazon S3 features, see the Amazon S3 documentation. Using an Amazon S3 bucket as your CloudFront origin server doesn\’t change it in any way. You can still use it as you normally would and you incur regular Amazon S3 charges.
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudFront/latest/DeveloperGuide/DownloadDistS3AndCust omOrigins.html

Q11 New.

A company has a three-tier, stateless web application. The company\’s web and application tiers run on Amazon BC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group with an Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) root volume, and the database tier runs on Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL. The company\’s recovery point objective (RPO) is 2 hours

What should a solutions architect recommend enabling backups for this environment?

A. Take snapshots of EBS volumes of the EC2 instances and database every 2 hours
B. Configure a snapshot lifecycle policy to take EBS snapshots and configure an automated database backup in Amazon RDS to meet the RPO
C. Take snapshots of EBS volumes of the EC2 instances every 2 hours Configure an automated database backup in Amazon RDS so that it runs every 2 hours
D. Retain the latest Amazon Machine Images (AMIs) of the web and application tiers Configure daily Amazon RDS snapshots and use point-in-time recovery to meet the RPO.

Correct Answer: D

Q12 New.

A gaming company hosts a browser-based application on AWS. The users of the application consume a large number of videos and images that are stored in Amazon S3. This content is the same for all users.

The application has increased in popularity, and millions of users worldwide are accessing these media files. The company wants to provide the files to the users while reducing the load on the origin.

Which solution meets these requirements MOST cost-effectively?

A. Deploy an AWS Global Accelerator accelerator in front of the web servers.
B. Deploy an Amazon CloudFront web distribution in front of the S3 bucket.
C. Deploy an Amazon ElastiCache for Redis instance in front of the web servers.
D. Deploy an Amazon ElastiCache for Memcached instance in front of the web servers.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/getting-started/hands-on/deliver-content-faster/

Q13 New.

A company hosts a training site on a fleet of Amazon EC2 instances. The company anticipates that its new course, which consists of dozens of training videos on the site, will be extremely popular when it is released in 1 week.

What should a solutions architect do to minimize the anticipated server load?

A. Store the videos in Amazon ElastiCache for Redis Update the web servers to serve the videos using the Elastic cache API
B. Store the videos in Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) Create a user data script for the web servers to mount the EFS volume.
C. Store the videos in an Amazon S3 bucket Create an Amazon CloudFlight distribution with an origin access identity (OAI) of that S3 bucket Restrict Amazon S3 access to the OAI.
D. Store the videos in an Amazon S3 bucket. Create an AWS Storage Gateway file gateway to access the S3 bucket Create a user data script for the web servers to mount the file gateway

Correct Answer: C

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September 19, 2022September 19, 2022admin

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The AWS Certified Developer – Associate exam requires 65 questions to be answered in 130 minutes, which can be multiple choice or multiple choice. Taking the exam costs $150.

To pass the AWS Certified Developer – Associate (DVA-C01) exam, you need to achieve a score of 720. After passing the exam, you can earn the AWS Certified Associate certification.

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It is necessary. According to reliable sources, after successfully passing the Amazon DVA-C01 exam to obtain THE AWS Certified Associate certification, salaries increased by an average of 25%. It will bring you intuitive wealth.

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Q1. A developer is building a backend system for the long-term storage of information from an inventory management system. The information needs to be stored so that other teams can build tools to report and analyze the data. How should the developer implement this solution to achieve the FASTEST running time?

A. Create an AWS Lambda function that writes to Amazon S3 synchronously Increase the function\\’s concurrency to match the highest expected value of concurrent scans and requests.
B. Create an AWS Lambda function that writes to Amazon S3 asynchronously Configure a dead-letter queue to collect unsuccessful invocations
C. Create an AWS Lambda function that writes to Amazon S3 synchronously Set the inventory system to retry failed requests.
D. Create an AWS Lambda function that writes to an Amazon ElastiCache for the Redis cluster asynchronously Configure a dead-letter queue to collect unsuccessful invocations.

Correct Answer: A

Q2. A developer is working on a serverless application that needs to process any changes to an Amazon DynamoDB table with an AWS Lambda function. How should the developer configure the Lambda function to detect changes to the DynamoDB table?

A. Create an Amazon Kinesis data stream, and attach it to the DynamoDB table. Create a trigger to connect the data stream to the Lambda function.
B. Create an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule to invoke the Lambda function on a regular schedule. Connect to the DynamoDB table from the Lambda function to detect changes.
C. Enable DynamoDB Streams on the table. Create a trigger to connect the DynamoDB stream to the Lambda function.
D. Create an Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose delivery stream, and attach it to the DynamoDB table. Configure the delivery stream destination as the Lambda function.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/getting-started/projects/build-serverless-web-app-lambda-apigateways3-dynamodbcognito/module-3/

Q3. A company is using Amazon API Gateway to manage its public-facing API. The CISO requires that the APIs be used by test account users only. What is the MOST secure way to restrict API access to users of this particular AWS account?

A. Client-side SSL certificates for authentication
B. API Gateway resource policies
C. Cross-origin resource sharing (CORS)
D. Usage plans

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/compute/control-access-to-your-apis-using-amazon-apigateway-resourcepolicies/

Q4. A Developer has an application that must accept a large number of incoming data streams and process the data before sending it to many downstream users. Which serverless solution should the Developer use to meet these requirements?

A. Amazon RDS MySQL stored procedure with AWS Lambda
B. AWS Direct Connect with AWS Lambda
C. Amazon Kinesis Data Streams with AWS Lambda
D. Amazon EC2 bash script with AWS Lambda

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/kinesis/data-analytics/faqs/

Q5. A developer is using Amazon S3 as the event source that invokes a Lambda function when new objects are created in the bucket. The event source mapping information is stored in the bucket notification configuration.

The developer is working with different versions of the Lambda function and has a constant need to update notification configuration so that Amazon S3 invokes the correct version. What is the MOST efficient and effective way to achieve mapping between the S3 event and Lambda?

A. Use a different Lambda trigger.
B. Use Lambda environment variables.
C. Use a Lambda alias.
D. Use Lambda tags.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/knowledge-center/lambda-s3-event-configurationerror/

Q6. A company\\’s fleet of Amazon EC2 instances receives data from millions of users through an API. The servers batch the data, add an object for each user, and upload the objects to an S3 bucket to ensure high access rates.

The object attributes are Customer ID, Server ID, TS-Server (TimeStamp and Server ID), the size of the object, and a timestamp. A developer wants to find all the objects for a given user collected during a specified time range. After creating an S3 object-created event, how can the Developer achieve this requirement?

A. Execute an AWS Lambda function in response to the S3 object creation events that create an Amazon DynamoDB record for every object with the Customer ID as the partition key and the Server ID as the sort key. Retrieve all the records using the Customer ID and Server ID attributes.

B. Execute an AWS Lambda function in response to the S3 object creation events that create an Amazon Redshift record for every object with the Customer ID as the partition key and TS-Server as the sort key. Retrieve all the records using the Customer ID and TS-Server attributes.

C. Execute an AWS Lambda function in response to the S3 object creation events that create an Amazon DynamoDB record for every object with the Customer ID as the partition key and TS-Server as the sort key. Retrieve all the records using the Customer ID and TS-Server attributes.

D. Execute an AWS Lambda function in response to the S3 object creation events that create an Amazon Redshift record for every object with the Customer ID as the partition key and the Server ID as the sort key. Retrieve all the records using the Customer ID and Server ID attributes.

Correct Answer: C

Q7. A developer wants to secure sensitive configuration data such as passwords, database strings, and application license codes. Access to this sensitive information must be tracked for future audit purposes. Where should the sensitive information be stored, adhering to security best practices and operational requirements?

A. In an encrypted file on the source code bundle; grant the application access with Amazon IAM
B. In the Amazon EC2 Systems Manager Parameter Store; grant the application access with IAM
C. On an Amazon EBS encrypted volume; attach the volume to an Amazon EC2 instance to access the data
D. As an object in an Amazon S3 bucket; grant an Amazon EC2 instance access with an IAM role

Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/security/how-to-enhance-the-security-of-sensitive-customerdata-by-usingamazon-cloudfront-field-level-encryption/

Q8. A Developer is migrating existing applications to AWS. These applications use MongoDB as their primary data store, and they will be deployed to Amazon EC2 instances. Management requires that the Developer minimize changes to applications while using AWS services. Which solution should the Developer use to host MongoDB in AWS?

A. Install MongoDB on the same instance where the application is running.
B. Deploy Amazon DocumentDB in MongoDB compatibility mode.
C. Use Amazon API Gateway to translate API calls from MongoDB to Amazon DynamoDB.
D. Replicate the existing MongoDB workload to Amazon DynamoDB.

Correct Answer: D

Q9. An application development team decides to use AWS X-Ray to monitor application code to analyze performance and perform r cause analysis What does the team need to do to begin using X-Ray? (Select TWO )

A. Log instrumentation output into an Amazon SQS queue
B. Use a visualization tool to view application traces
C. Instrument application code using the AWS SDK
D. Install the X-Ray agent on the application servers
E. Create an Amazon DynamoDB table to store the trace logs

Correct Answer: DE

Q10. A Lambda function is packaged for deployment to multiple environments, including development, test, production, etc. Each environment has a unique set of resources such as databases, etc. How can the Lambda function use the resources for the current environment?

A. Apply tags to the Lambda functions.
B. Hardcore resources in the source code.
C. Use environment variables for the Lambda functions.
D. Use a separate function for development and production.

Correct Answer: C

Q11. A developer is creating a serverless web application and maintains different branches of code. The developer wants to avoid updating the Amazon API Gateway target endpoint each time a new code push is performed. What solution would allow the developer to perform a code push efficiently, without the need to update the API Gateway?

A. Associate different AWS Lambda functions to an API Gateway target endpoint.
B. Create different stages in API Gateway, then associate API Gateway with AWS Lambda.
C. Create aliases and versions in AWS Lambda.
D. Tag the AWS Lambda functions with different names.

Correct Answer: C

Q12. A company is adding items to an Amazon DynamoDB table from an AWS Lambda function that is written in Python. A developer needs to implement a solution that inserts records in the DynamoDB table and performs an automatic retry when the insert fails. Which solution meets these requirements with MINIMUM code changes?

A. Configure the Python code to run the AWS CLI through the shell to call the PutItem operation
B. Call the PutItem operation from Python by using the DynamoDB HTTP API
C. Queue the items in AWS Glue, which will put them into the DynamoDB table
D. Use the AWS software development kit (SDK) for Python (boto3) to call the PutItem operation

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/amazondynamodb/latest/developerguide/ GettingStarted.Python.html

Q13. In a move toward using microservices, a company\’s Management team has asked all Development teams to build their services so that API requests depend only on that service\’s data store. One team is building a Payments service that has its own database; the service needs data that originates in the Accounts database. Both are using Amazon
DynamoDB.

What approach will result in the simplest, decoupled, and most reliable method to get near-real-time updates from the Accounts database?

A. Use Amazon Glue to perform frequent ETL updates from the Accounts database to the Payments database.
B. Use Amazon ElastiCache in Payments, with the cache updated by triggers in the Accounts database.
C. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Firehouse to deliver all changes from the Accounts database to the Payments database.
D. Use Amazon DynamoDB Streams to deliver all changes from the Accounts database to the Payments database.

Correct Answer: D

Reference:
https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/database/how-to-perform-ordered-data-replication- between applications-by using amazon-dynamodb-streams/

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April 18, 2022April 18, 2022admin

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Q#1

A banking company is currently using Amazon Redshift for sensitive data. An audit found that the current cluster is unencrypted. Compliance requires that a database with sensitive data must be encrypted using a hardware security module (HSM) with customer-managed keys.

Which modifications are required in the cluster to ensure compliance?

A. Create a new HSM-encrypted Amazon Redshift cluster and migrate the data to the new cluster.
B. Modify the DB parameter group with the appropriate encryption settings and then restart the cluster.
C. Enable HSM encryption in Amazon Redshift using the command line.
D. Modify the Amazon Redshift cluster from the console and enable encryption using the HSM option.

Correct Answer: A

When you modify your cluster to enable AWS KMS encryption, Amazon Redshift automatically migrates your data to a new encrypted cluster.

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/redshift/latest/mgmt/working-with-db-encryption.html

Q#2

A company is sending historical datasets to Amazon S3 for storage. A data engineer at the company wants to make these datasets available for analysis using Amazon Athena. The engineer also wants to encrypt the Athena query results in an S3 results location by using AWS solutions for encryption.

The requirements for encrypting the query results are as
follows:

Use custom keys for encryption of the primary dataset query results.
Use generic encryption for all other query results.
Provide an audit trail for the primary dataset queries that show when the keys were used and by whom.

A. Use server-side encryption with S3 managed encryption keys (SSE-S3) for the primary dataset. Use SSE-S3 for the other datasets.
B. Use server-side encryption with customer-provided encryption keys (SSE-C) for the primary dataset. Use server-side encryption with S3 managed encryption keys (SSE-S3) for the other datasets.
C. Use server-side encryption with AWS KMS managed customer master keys (SSE-KMS CMKs) for the primary dataset. Use server-side encryption with S3 managed encryption keys (SSE-S3) for the other datasets.
D. Use client-side encryption with AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) customer-managed keys for the primary dataset. Use S3 client-side encryption with client-side keys for the other datasets.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://d1.awsstatic.com/product-marketing/S3/Amazon_S3_Security_eBook_2020.pdf

Q#3

A company has collected more than 100 TB of log files in the last 24 months. The files are stored as raw text in a dedicated Amazon S3 bucket. Each object has a key of the form year-month-day_log_HHmmss.txt where HHmmss represents the time the log file was initially created. A table was created in Amazon Athena that points to the S3 bucket.

One-time queries are run against a subset of columns in the table several times an hour.
A data analyst must make changes to reduce the cost of running these queries. Management wants a solution with minimal maintenance overhead.

Which combination of steps should the data analyst take to meet these requirements? (Choose three.)

A. Convert the log files to Apache Avro format.
B. Add a key prefix of the form date=year-month-day/ to the S3 objects to partition the data.
C. Convert the log files to Apache Parquet format.
D. Add a key prefix of the form year-month-day/ to the S3 objects to partition the data.
E. Drop and recreate the table with the PARTITIONED BY clause. Run the ALTER TABLE ADD PARTITION statement.
F. Drop and recreate the table with the PARTITIONED BY clause. Run the MSCK REPAIR TABLE statement.

Correct Answer: BCF

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/athena/latest/ug/msck-repair-table.html

Q# 4

A company is providing analytics services to its sales and marketing departments. The departments can access the data only through their business intelligence (BI) tools, which run queries on Amazon Redshift using an Amazon Redshift internal user to connect.

Each department is assigned a user in the Amazon Redshift database with the permissions needed for that department. The marketing data analysts must be granted direct access to the advertising table, which is stored in Apache Parquet format in the marketing S3 bucket of the company data lake. The company data lake is managed by AWS Lake Formation.

Finally, access must be limited to the three promotion columns in the table.
Which combination of steps will meet these requirements? (Choose three.)

A. Grant permissions in Amazon Redshift to allow the marketing Amazon Redshift user to access the three promotion columns of the advertising external table.
B. Create an Amazon Redshift Spectrum IAM role with permissions for Lake Formation. Attach it to the Amazon Redshift cluster.
C. Create an Amazon Redshift Spectrum IAM role with permissions for the marketing S3 bucket. Attach it to the Amazon Redshift cluster.
D. Create an external schema in Amazon Redshift by using the Amazon Redshift Spectrum IAM role. Grant usage to the marketing Amazon Redshift user.
E. Grant permissions in Lake Formation to allow the Amazon Redshift Spectrum role to access the three promotion columns of the advertising table.
F. Grant permissions in Lake Formation to allow the marketing IAM group to access the three promotion columns of the advertising table.

Correct Answer: BDE

Q#5

An airline has .csv-formatted data stored in Amazon S3 with an AWS Glue Data Catalog. Data analysts want to join this data with call center data stored in Amazon Redshift as part of a daily batch process. The Amazon Redshift cluster is already under a heavy load.

The solution must be managed, serverless, well-functioning, and minimize the load on the
existing Amazon Redshift cluster. The solution should also require minimal effort and development activity.

Which solution meets these requirements?

A. Unload the call center data from Amazon Redshift to Amazon S3 using an AWS Lambda function. Perform the join with AWS Glue ETL scripts.
B. Export the call center data from Amazon Redshift using a Python shell in AWS Glue. Perform the join with AWS Glue ETL scripts.
C. Create an external table using Amazon Redshift Spectrum for the call center data and perform the join with Amazon Redshift.
D. Export the call center data from Amazon Redshift to Amazon EMR using Apache Sqoop. Perform the join with Apache Hive.

Correct Answer: C

Q#6

A media analytics company consumes a stream of social media posts. The posts are sent to an Amazon Kinesis data stream partitioned on user_id. An AWS Lambda function retrieves the records and validates the content before loading the posts into an Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon Elasticsearch Service) cluster.

The validation process needs to receive the posts for a given user in the order they were received by the Kinesis data stream.

During peak hours, the social media posts take more than an hour to appear in the Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon ES) cluster. A data analytics specialist must implement a solution that reduces this latency with the least possible operational overhead.

Which solution meets these requirements?

A. Migrate the validation process from Lambda to AWS Glue.
B. Migrate the Lambda consumers from standard data stream iterators to an HTTP/2 stream consumer.
C. Increase the number of shards in the Kinesis data stream.
D. Send the posts stream to Amazon Managed Streaming for Apache Kafka instead of the Kinesis data stream.

Correct Answer: C

For real-time processing of streaming data, Amazon Kinesis partitions data into multiple shards that can then be consumed by multiple Amazon EC2 Reference: https://d1.awsstatic.com/whitepapers/AWS_Cloud_Best_Practices.pdf

Q#7

A company operates toll services for highways across the country and collects data that is used to understand usage patterns. Analysts have requested the ability to run traffic reports in near-real-time.

The company is interested in building an ingestion pipeline that loads all the data into an Amazon Redshift cluster and alerts operations personnel when toll traffic for a particular toll station does not meet a specified threshold. Station data and the corresponding threshold values are stored in Amazon S3.

Which approach is the MOST efficient way to meet these requirements?

A. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to collect data and deliver it to Amazon Redshift and Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics simultaneously.

Create a reference data source in Kinesis Data Analytics to temporarily store the threshold values from Amazon S3 and compare the count of vehicles for a particular toll station against its corresponding threshold value. Use AWS Lambda to publish an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) notification if the threshold is not met.

B. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to collect all the data from toll stations. Create a stream in Kinesis Data Streams to temporarily store the threshold values from Amazon S3. Send both streams to Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics to compare the count of vehicles for a particular toll station against its corresponding threshold value.

Use AWS Lambda to publish an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) notification if the threshold is not met. Connect Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to Kinesis Data Streams to deliver the data to Amazon Redshift.

C. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to collect data and deliver it to Amazon Redshift. Then, automatically trigger an AWS Lambda function that queries the data in Amazon Redshift, compares the count of vehicles for a particular toll station against its corresponding threshold values read from Amazon S3, and publishes an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) notification if the threshold is not met.

D. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to collect data and deliver it to Amazon Redshift and Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics simultaneously. Use Kinesis Data Analytics to compare the count of vehicles against the threshold value for the station stored in a table as an in-application stream based on information stored in Amazon S3.

Configure an AWS Lambda function as an output for the application that will publish an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) notification to alert operations personnel if the threshold is not met.

Correct Answer: D

Q#8

A telecommunications company is looking for an anomaly-detection solution to identify fraudulent calls. The company currently uses Amazon Kinesis to stream voice call records in a JSON format from its on-premises database to Amazon S3. The existing dataset contains voice call records with 200 columns. To detect fraudulent calls, the solution would
need to look at 5 of these columns only.

The company is interested in a cost-effective solution using AWS that requires minimal effort and experience in anomaly detection algorithms. Which solution meets these requirements?

A. Use an AWS Glue job to transform the data from JSON to Apache Parquet. Use AWS Glue crawlers to discover the schema and build the AWS Glue Data Catalog. Use Amazon Athena to create a table with a subset of columns. Use Amazon QuickSight to visualize the data and then use Amazon QuickSight machine learning-powered anomaly
detection.

B. Use Kinesis Data Firehose to detect anomalies on a data stream from Kinesis by running SQL queries, which compute an anomaly score for all calls and store the output in Amazon RDS. Use Amazon Athena to build a dataset and Amazon QuickSight to visualize the results.

C. Use an AWS Glue job to transform the data from JSON to Apache Parquet. Use AWS Glue crawlers to discover the schema and build the AWS Glue Data Catalog. Use Amazon SageMaker to build an anomaly detection model that can detect fraudulent calls by ingesting data from Amazon S3.

D. Use Kinesis Data Analytics to detect anomalies on a data stream from Kinesis by running SQL queries, which compute an anomaly score for all calls. Connect Amazon QuickSight to Kinesis Data Analytics to visualize the anomaly scores.

Correct Answer: A

Q#9

A company currently uses Amazon Athena to query its global datasets. The regional data is stored in Amazon S3 in the us-east-1 and us-west-2 Regions. The data is not encrypted. To simplify the query process and manage it centrally, the company wants to use Athena in us-west-2 to query data from Amazon S3 in both Regions. The solution should be as
low-cost as possible.

What should the company do to achieve this goal?

A. Use AWS DMS to migrate the AWS Glue Data Catalog from us-east-1 to us-west-2. Run Athena queries in west-2.

B. Run the AWS Glue crawler in us-west-2 to catalog datasets in all Regions. Once the data is crawled, run Athena queries in us-west-2.

C. Enable cross-Region replication for the S3 buckets in us-east-1 to replicate data in us-west-2. Once the data is replicated in us-west-2, run the AWS Glue crawler there to update the AWS Glue Data Catalog in us-west-2 and run Athena queries.

D. Update AWS Glue resource policies to provide us-east-1 AWS Glue Data Catalog access to us-west-2. Once the catalog in us-west-2 has access to the catalog in us-east-1, run Athena queries in us-west-2.

Correct Answer: C

Q#10

A company wants to research user turnover by analyzing the past 3 months of user activities. With millions of users, 1.5 TB of uncompressed data is generated each day. A 30-node Amazon Redshift cluster with 2.56 TB of solid-state drive (SSD) storage for each node is required to meet the query performance goals.

The company wants to run an additional analysis on a year\’s worth of historical data to examine trends indicating which features are most popular. This analysis will be done once a week.

What is the MOST cost-effective solution?

A. Increase the size of the Amazon Redshift cluster to 120 nodes so it has enough storage capacity to hold 1 year of data. Then use Amazon Redshift for the additional analysis.

B. Keep the data from the last 90 days in Amazon Redshift. Move data older than 90 days to Amazon S3 and store it in Apache Parquet format partitioned by date. Then use Amazon Redshift Spectrum for the additional analysis.

C. Keep the data from the last 90 days in Amazon Redshift. Move data older than 90 days to Amazon S3 and store it in Apache Parquet format partitioned by date. Then provision a persistent Amazon EMR cluster and use Apache Presto for the additional analysis.

D. Resize the cluster node type to the dense storage node type (DS2) for an additional 16 TB storage capacity on each individual node in the Amazon Redshift cluster. Then use Amazon Redshift for the additional analysis.

Correct Answer: B

Q#11

A company has developed an Apache Hive script to batch process data started in Amazon S3. The script needs to run once every day and store the output in Amazon S3. The company tested the script, and it completes within 30 minutes on a small local three-node cluster.

Which solution is the MOST cost-effective for scheduling and executing the script?

A. Create an AWS Lambda function to spin up an Amazon EMR cluster with a Hive execution step. Set KeepJobFlowAliveWhenNoSteps to false and disable the termination protection flag. Use Amazon CloudWatch Events to schedule the

B. Use the AWS Management Console to spin up an Amazon EMR cluster with Python Hue. Hive, and Apache Oozie. Set the termination protection flag to true and use Spot Instances for the core nodes of the cluster. Configure an Oozie workflow in the cluster to invoke the Hive script daily.

C. Create an AWS Glue job with the Hive script to perform the batch operation. Configure the job to run once a day using a time-based schedule.

D. Use AWS Lambda layers and load the Hive runtime to AWS Lambda and copy the Hive script. Schedule the Lambda function to run daily by creating a workflow using AWS Step Functions.

Correct Answer: C

Q#12

A manufacturing company is storing data from its operational systems in Amazon S3. The company\\’s business analysts need to perform one-time queries of the data in Amazon S3 with Amazon Athena. The company needs to access the Athena network from the on-premises network by using a JDBC connection.

The company has created a VPC Security policy mandate that requests to AWS services cannot traverse the Internet. Which combination of steps should a data analytics specialist take to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Establish an AWS Direct Connect connection between the on-premises network and the VPC.
B. Configure the JDBC connection to connect to Athena through Amazon API Gateway.
C. Configure the JDBC connection to use a gateway VPC endpoint for Amazon S3.
D. Configure the JDBC connection to use an interface VPC endpoint for Athena.
E. Deploy Athena within a private subnet.

Correct Answer: AE

AWS Direct Connect makes it easy to establish a dedicated connection from an on-premises network to one or more VPCs in the same region.

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/whitepapers/latest/aws-vpc-connectivity-options/aws-direct-connect.html
https://stackoverflow.com/questions/68798311/aws-athena-connect-from-lambda

Q#13

A marketing company collects data from third-party providers and uses transient Amazon EMR clusters to process this data. The company wants to host an Apache Hive metastore that is persistent, reliable, and can be accessed by EMR clusters and multiple AWS services and accounts simultaneously. The metastore must also be available at all times.

Which solution meets these requirements with the LEAST operational overhead?

A. Use AWS Glue Data Catalog as the metastore
B. Use an external Amazon EC2 instance running MySQL as the metastore
C. Use Amazon RDS for MySQL as the metastore
D. Use Amazon S3 as the metastore

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/emr/latest/ReleaseGuide/emr-hive-metastore-glue.html

…..

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Q&A 1

A company is running a website on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The company configured an Amazon CloudFront distribution and set the ALB as the origin.

The company created an Amazon Route 53 CNAME record to send all traffic through the CloudFront distribution. As an unintended side effect, mobile users are
now being served the desktop version of the website.

Which action should a SysOps administrator take to resolve this issue?

A. Configure the CloudFront distribution behavior to forward the User-Agent header.
B. Configure the CloudFront distribution origin settings. Add a User-Agent header to the list of origin custom headers.
C. Enable IPv6 on the ALB. Update the CloudFront distribution origin settings to use the dual-stack endpoint.
D. Enable IPv6 on the CloudFront distribution. Update the Route 53 record to use the dual-stack endpoint.

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/Route53/latest/DeveloperGuide/routing-to-elb-loadbalancer.html

Q&A 2

A company hosts an online shopping portal in the AWS Cloud. The portal provides HTTPS security by using a TLS certificate on an Elastic Load Balancer (ELB). Recently, the portal suffered an outage because the TLS certificate expired.

A SysOps administrator must create a solution to automatically renew certificates to avoid this issue in the future.

What is the MOST operationally efficient solution that meets these requirements?

A. Request a public certificate by using AWS Certificate Manager (ACM). Associate the certificate from ACM with the ELB. Write a scheduled AWS Lambda function to renew the certificate every 18 months.
B. Request a public certificate by using AWS Certificate Manager (ACM). Associate the certificate from ACM with the ELB. ACM will automatically manage the renewal of the certificate.
C. Register a certificate with a third-party certificate authority (CA). Import this certificate into the AWS Certificate Manager (ACM). Associate the certificate from ACM with the ELB. ACM will automatically manage the renewal of the certificate.
D. Register a certificate with a third-party certificate authority (CA). Configure the ELB to import the certificate directly from the CA. Set the certificate refresh cycle on the ELB to refresh when the certificate is within 3 months of the expiration date.

Q&A 3

A SysOps administrator is deploying a test site running on Amazon EC2 instances. The application requires both incoming and outgoing connections to the internet.

Which combination of steps are required to provide internet connectivity to the EC2 instances? (Choose two.)

A. Add a NAT gateway to a public subnet.
B. Attach a private address to the elastic network interface on the EC2 instance.
C. Attach an Elastic IP address to the internet gateway.
D. Add an entry to the routing table for the subnet that points to an internet gateway.
E. Create an internet gateway and attach it to a VPC.

Q&A 4

A company has an internal web application that runs on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer. The instances run in an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group in a single Availability Zone.

A SysOps administrator must make the application highly available.
Which action should the SysOps administrator take to meet this requirement?

A. Increase the maximum number of instances in the Auto Scaling group to meet the capacity that is required at peak usage.
B. Increase the minimum number of instances in the Auto Scaling group to meet the capacity that is required at peak usage.
C. Update the Auto Scaling group to launch new instances in a second Availability Zone in the same AWS Region.
D. Update the Auto Scaling group to launch new instances in an Availability Zone in a second AWS Region.

Q&A 5

A SysOps Administrator is managing a web application that runs on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The instances run in an EC2 Auto Scaling group. The administrator wants to set an alarm for when all target instances associated with the ALB are unhealthy.

Which condition should be used with the alarm?

A. AWS/ApplicationELB HealthyHostCount = 1
C. AWS/EC2 StatusCheckFailed = 1

Q&A 6

A company hosts a web application on an Amazon EC2 instance in a production VPC. Client connections to the application are failing. A SysOps administrator inspects the VPC flow logs and finds the following entry:

2 111122223333 eni- 192.0.2.15 203.0.113.56 40711 443 6 1 40 1418530010 1418530070 REJECT OK

What is a possible cause of these failed connections?

A. A security group is denying traffic on port 443.
B. The EC2 instance is shut down.
C. The network ACL is blocking HTTPS traffic.
D. The VPC has no internet gateway attached.

Q&A 7

A company is migrating its production file server to AWS. All data that is stored on the file server must remain accessible if an Availability Zone becomes unavailable or when system maintenance is performed.

Users must be able to interact with the file server through the SMB protocol. Users also must have the ability to manage file permissions by
using Windows ACLs.

Which solution will net these requirements?

A. Create a single AWS Storage Gateway file gateway.
B. Create an Amazon FSx for Windows File Server Multi-AZ file system.
C. Deploy two AWS Storage Gateway file gateways across two Availability Zones. Configure an Application Load Balancer in front of the file gateways.
D. Deploy two Amazon FSx for Windows File Server Single-AZ 2 file systems. Configure Microsoft Distributed File System Replication (DFSR).

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/fsx/latest/WindowsGuide/what-is.html

Q&A 8

A company monitors its account activity using AWS CloudTrail and is concerned that some log files are being tampered with after the logs have been delivered to the account\\’s Amazon S3 bucket.

Moving forward, how can the SysOps Administrator confirm that the log files have not been modified after being delivered to the S3 bucket?

A. Stream the CloudTrail logs to Amazon CloudWatch Logs to store logs at a secondary location.
B. Enable log file integrity validation and use digest files to verify the hash value of the log file.
C. Replicate the S3 log bucket across regions, and encrypt log files with S3 managed keys.
D. Enable S3 server access logging to track requests made to the log bucket for security audits.

Q&A 9

A SysOps administrator has created a VPC that contains a public subnet and a private subnet. Amazon EC2 instances that were launched in the private subnet cannot access the internet. The default network ACL is active on all subnets in the VPC and all security groups allow all outbound traffic:

Which solution will provide the EC2 instances in the private subnet with access to the internet?

A. Create a NAT gateway in the public subnet. Create a route from the private subnet to the NAT gateway.
B. Create a NAT gateway in the public subnet. Create a route from the public subnet to the NAT gateway.
C. Create a NAT gateway in the private subnet. Create a route from the public subnet to the NAT gateway.
D. Create a NAT gateway in the private subnet. Create a route from the private subnet to the NAT gateway.

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/vpc/latest/userguide/vpc-nat-gateway.html

Q&A 10

A company runs a web application on three Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The company notices that random periods of increased traffic cause a degradation in the application\\’s performance.

A SysOps administrator must scale the application to meet the increased traffic.
Which solution meets these requirements?

A. Create an Amazon CloudWatch alarm to monitor application latency and increase the size of each EC2 instance if the desired threshold is reached.
B. Create an Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule to monitor application latency and add an EC2 instance to the ALB if the desired threshold is reached.
C. Deploy the application to an Auto Scaling group of EC2 instances with a target tracking scaling policy. Attach the ALB to the Auto Scaling group.
D. Deploy the application to an Auto Scaling group of EC2 instances with a scheduled scaling policy. Attach the ALB to the Auto Scaling group.

Q&A 11

their own development environments and these development environments must be identical. Each development environment consists of Amazon EC2 instances and an Amazon RDS DB instance. The development environments should be created only when necessary, and they must be terminated each night to minimize costs.

What is the MOST operationally efficient solution that meets these requirements?

A. Provide developers with access to the same AWS CloudFormation template so that they can provide their development environment when necessary. Schedule a nightly cron job on each development instance to stop all running processes to reduce CPU utilization to nearly zero.

B. Provide developers with access to the same AWS CloudFormation template so that they can provide their development environment when necessary. Schedule a nightly Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule to invoke an AWS Lambda function to delete the AWS CloudFormation stacks.

C. Provide developers with CLI commands so that they can provide their own development environment when necessary. Schedule a nightly Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule to invoke an AWS Lambda function to terminate all EC2 instances and the DB instance.

D. Provide developers with CLI commands so that they can provide their own development environment when necessary. Schedule a nightly Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule to cause AWS CloudFormation to delete all of the development environment resources.

Q&A 12

A company has a stateful web application that is hosted on Amazon EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group. The instances run behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB) that has a single target group. The ALB is configured as the origin in an Amazon CloudFront distribution. Users are reporting random logouts from the web application.

Which combination of actions should a SysOps administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)

A. Change to the least outstanding requests algorithm on the ALB target group.
B. Configure cookie forwarding in the CloudFront distribution cache behavior.
C. Configure header forwarding in the CloudFront distribution cache behavior.
D. Enable group-level stickiness on the ALB listener rule.
E. Enable sticky sessions on the ALB target group.

Post the correct answer and correct it:

1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10	11	12
C	C	DE	C	A	A	B	C	A	C	C	CE

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[SAP-C01 Dumps Mar2022] Amazon SAP-C01 Dumps Practice Questions

March 30, 2022March 30, 2022admin

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Check out the following free SAP-C01 dumps Mar2022 practice questions(1-12)

1.

An organization is undergoing a security audit. The auditor wants to view the AWS VPC configurations as the organization has hosted all the applications in the AWS VPC. The auditor is from a remote place and wants to have access to AWS to view all the VPC records.

How can the organization meet the expectations of the auditor without compromising the security of its AWS infrastructure?

A. The organization should not accept the request as sharing the credentials means compromising security.
B. Create an IAM role that will have read-only access to all EC2 services including VPC and assign that role to the auditor.
C. Create an IAM user who will have read-only access to the AWS VPC and share those credentials with the auditor.
D. The organization should create an IAM user with VPC full access but set a condition that will not allow modifying anything if the request is from any IP other than the organization\\’s data center.

Correct Answer: C

A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) is a virtual network dedicated to the user\\’s AWS account. The user can create subnets as per the requirement within a VPC. The VPC also works with IAM and the organization can create IAM users who have access to various VPC services. If an auditor wants to have access to the AWS VPC to verify the rules, the organization
should be careful before sharing any data which can allow making updates to the AWS infrastructure.

In this scenario, it is recommended that the organization creates an IAM user who will have read-only access to the VPC. Share the above-mentioned credentials with the auditor as it cannot harm the organization. The sample policy is given below:
{
“Effect”:”Allow”, “Action”: [ “ec2:DescribeVpcs”, “ec2:DescribeSubnets”,
“ec2: DescribeInternetGateways”, “ec2:DescribeCustomerGateways”, “ec2:DescribeVpnGateways”,
“ec2:DescribeVpnConnections”, “ec2:DescribeRouteTables”, “ec2:DescribeAddresses”, “ec2:DescribeSecurityGroups”,
“ec2:DescribeNetworkAcls”, “ec2:DescribeDhcpOptions”, “ec2:DescribeTags”, “ec2:DescribeInstances”
],
“Resource”:”*”
}
Reference:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonVPC/latest/UserGuide/VPC_IAM.html

2.

IAM users do not have permission to create Temporary Security Credentials for federated users and roles by default. In contrast, IAM users can call __ without the need of any special permissions

A. GetSessionName
B. GetFederationToken
C. GetSessionToken
D. GetFederationName

Correct Answer: C

Currently the STS API command GetSessionToken is available to every IAM user in your account without previous permission. In contrast, the GetFederationToken command is restricted and explicit permissions need to be granted so a user can issue calls to this particular Action.

Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/STS/latest/UsingSTS/STSPermission.html

3.

What is the role of the PollForTask action when it is called by a task runner in AWS Data Pipeline?

A. It is used to retrieve the pipeline definition.
B. It is used to report the progress of the task runner to AWS Data Pipeline.
C. It is used to receive a task to perform from AWS Data Pipeline.
D. It is used to inform AWS Data Pipeline of the outcome when the task runner completes a task.

Correct Answer: C

Task runners call PollForTask to receive a task to perform from AWS Data Pipeline. If tasks are ready in the work queue, PollForTask returns a response immediately. If no tasks are available in the queue, PollForTask uses longpolling and holds on to a poll connection for up to 90 seconds, during which time any newly scheduled tasks are handed to the task agent.

Your remote worker should not call PollForTask again on the same worker group until it receives a response, and this may take up to 90 seconds.
Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/datapipeline/latest/APIReference/API_PollForTask.html

4.

Which of the following is true of an instance profile when an IAM role is created using the console?

A. The instance profile uses a different name.
B. The console gives the instance profile the same name as the role it corresponds to.
C. The instance profile should be created manually by a user.
D. The console creates the role and instance profile as separate actions.

Correct Answer: B

Amazon EC2 uses an instance profile as a container for an IAM role. When you create an IAM role using the console, the console creates an instance profile automatically and gives it the same name as the role it corresponds to.

If you use the AWS CLI, API, or an AWS SDK to create a role, you create the role and instance profile as separate actions, and you might give them different names.
Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/IAM/latest/UserGuide/id_roles_use_switch-role-ec2_instance-profiles.html
Exam C

5.

A company is configuring connectivity to a multi-account AWS environment to support application workloads that serve users in a single geographic region. The workloads depend on a highly available, on-premises legacy system deployed across two locations.

It is critical for the AWS workloads to maintain connectivity to the legacy system, and a minimum of 5 Gbps of bandwidth is required. All application workloads within AWS must have connectivity with one another.

Which solution will meet these requirements?

A. Configure multiple AWS Direct Connect (DX) 10 Gbps dedicated connections from a DX partner for each on? remises location. Create private virtual interfaces on each connection for each AWS account VPC. Associate the private virtual interface with a virtual private gateway attached to each VPC.

B. Configure multiple AWS Direct Connect (DX) 10 Gbps dedicated connections from two DX partners for each on-premises location. Create and attach a virtual private gateway for each AWS account VPC. Create a DX gateway in a central network account and associate it with the virtual private gateways. Create a public virtual interface on each DX connection and associate the interface with the DX gateway.

C. Configure multiple AWS Direct Connect (DX) 10 Gbps dedicated connections from two DX partners for each on-premises location. Create a transit gateway and a DX gateway in a central network account. Create a transit virtual interface for each DX interface and associate them with the DX gateway. Create a gateway association between the DX
gateway and the transit gateway.

D. Configure multiple AWS Direct Connect (DX) 10 Gbps dedicated connections from a DX partner for each on-premises location. Create and attach a virtual private gateway for each AWS account VPC. Create a transit gateway in a central network account and associate it with the virtual private gateways. Create a transit virtual interface on each DX
connection and attach the interface to the transit gateway.

Correct Answer: B

6.

True or False: “In the context of Amazon ElastiCache, from the application\’s point of view, connecting to the cluster configuration endpoint is no different than connecting directly to an individual cache node.”

A. True, from the application\’s point of view, connecting to the cluster configuration endpoint is no different than connecting directly to an individual cache node since, each has a unique node identifier.

B. True, from the application\’s point of view, connecting to the cluster configuration endpoint is no different than connecting directly to an individual cache node.

C. False, you can connect to a cache node, but not to a cluster configuration endpoint.

D. False, you can connect to a cluster configuration endpoint, but not to a cache node.

Correct Answer: B

This is true. From the application\’s point of view, connecting to the cluster configuration endpoint is no different than connecting directly to an individual cache node.

In the process of connecting to cache nodes, the application resolves the configuration endpoint\’s DNS name. Because the configuration endpoint maintains CNAME entries for all of the cache nodes, the DNS name resolves to one of the nodes; the client can then connect to that node.

Reference:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonElastiCache/latest/UserGuide/AutoDiscovery.HowAutoDiscoveryWorks.html

7.

An AWS partner company is building a service in AWS Organizations using its organization named org1. This service requires the partner company to have access to AWS resources in a customer account, which is in a separate organization named org2.

The company must establish least privilege security access using an API or command-line tool to the customer account.

What is the MOST secure way to allow org1 to access resources in org2?

A. The customer should provide the partner company with their AWS account access keys to log in and perform the required tasks.

B. The customer should create an IAM user and assign the required permissions to the IAM user. The customer should then provide the credentials to the partner company to log in and perform the required tasks.

C. The customer should create an IAM role and assign the required permissions to the IAM role. The partner company should then use the IAM role\’s Amazon Resource Name (ARN) when requesting access to perform the required tasks.

D. The customer should create an IAM role and assign the required permissions to the IAM role. The partner company should then use the IAM role\’s Amazon Resource Name (ARN), including the external ID in the IAM role\’s trust policy, when requesting access to perform the required tasks.

Correct Answer: B

8.

A company has many AWS accounts and uses AWS Organizations to manage all of them. A solutions architect must implement a solution that the company can use to share a common network across multiple accounts.

The company\’s infrastructure team has a dedicated infrastructure account that has a VPC. The infrastructure team must use this account to manage the network. Individual accounts cannot have the ability to manage their own networks. However, individual accounts must be able to create AWS resources within subnets.

Which combination of actions should the solutions architect perform to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Create a transit gateway in the infrastructure account.

B. Enable resource sharing from the AWS Organizations management account.

C. Create VPCs in each AWS account within the organization in AWS Organizations. Configure the VPCs to share the same CIDR range and subnets as the VPC in the infrastructure account. Peer the VPCs in each individual account with the VPC in the infrastructure account.

D. Create a resource share in AWS Resource Access Manager in the infrastructure account. Select the specific AWS Organizations OU that will use the shared network. Select each subnet to associate with the resource share.

E. Create a resource share in AWS Resource Access Manager in the infrastructure account. Select the specific AWS Organizations OU that will use the shared network. Select each prefix-list to associate with the resource share.

Correct Answer: BE

9.

A company has an application that generates a weather forecast that is updated every 15 minutes with an output resolution of 1 billion unique positions, each approximately 20 bytes in size (20 Gigabytes per forecast).

Every hour, the forecast data is globally accessed approximately 5 million times (1,400 requests per second), and up to 10 times more
during weather events.

The forecast data is overwritten in every update. Users of the current weather forecast application expect responses to queries to be returned in less than two seconds for each request.

Which design meets the required request rate and response time?

A. Store forecast locations in an Amazon ES cluster. Use an Amazon CloudFront distribution targeting an Amazon API Gateway endpoint with AWS Lambda functions responding to queries as the origin. Enable API caching on the API Gateway stage with a cache-control timeout set for 15 minutes.

B. Store forecast locations in an Amazon EFS volume. Create an Amazon CloudFront distribution that targets an Elastic Load Balancing group of an Auto Scaling fleet of Amazon EC2 instances that have mounted the Amazon EFS volume. Set the cache-control timeout for 15 minutes in the CloudFront distribution.

C. Store forecast locations in an Amazon ES cluster. Use an Amazon CloudFront distribution targeting an API Gateway endpoint with AWS Lambda functions responding to queries as the origin. Create an Amazon [email protected] function that caches the data locally at edge locations for 15 minutes.

D. Store forecast locations in Amazon S3 as individual objects. Create an Amazon CloudFront distribution targeting an Elastic Load Balancing group of an Auto Scaling fleet of EC2 instances, querying the origin of the S3 object. Set the cache-control timeout for 15 minutes in the CloudFront distribution.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/networking-and-content-delivery/lambdaedge-design-best-practices/

10.

The following are AWS Storage services? (Choose two.)

A. AWS Relational Database Service (AWS RDS)
B. AWS ElastiCache
C. AWS Glacier
D. AWS Import/Export

Correct Answer: CD

11.

An organization is trying to set up a VPC with Auto Scaling. Which configuration steps below are not required to set up AWS VPC with Auto Scaling?

A. Configure the Auto Scaling group with the VPC ID in which instances will be launched.
B. Configure the Auto Scaling Launch configuration with multiple subnets of the VPC to enable the Multi-AZ feature.
C. Configure the Auto Scaling Launch configuration which does not allow assigning a public IP to instances.
D. Configure the Auto Scaling Launch configuration with the VPC security group.

Correct Answer: B

The Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC) allows the user to define a virtual networking environment in a private, isolated section of the Amazon Web Services (AWS) cloud. The user has complete control over the virtual networking environment. Within this virtual private cloud, the user can launch AWS resources, such as an Auto Scaling group.

Before creating the Auto Scaling group it is recommended that the user creates the Launch configuration. Since it is a VPC, it is recommended to select the parameter which does not allow assigning a public IP to the instances.

The user should also set the VPC security group with the Launch configuration and select the subnets where the instances will be launched in the AutoScaling group. The HA will be provided as the subnets may be a part of separate AZs.

Reference:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AutoScaling/latest/DeveloperGuide/autoscalingsubnets.html

12.

A company has a web application that allows users to upload short videos. The videos are stored on Amazon EBS volumes and analyzed by custom recognition software for categorization.

The website contains static content that has variable traffic with peaks in certain months. The architecture consists of Amazon EC2 instances running in an Auto Scaling group for the web application and EC2 instances running in an Auto Scaling group to process an Amazon SQS-queue.

The company wants to re-architect the application to reduce
operational overhead using AWS managed services where possible and remove dependencies on third-party software.

Which solution meets these requirements?

A. Use Amazon ECS containers for the web application and Spot instances for the Scaling group that processes the SQS queue. Replace the custom software with Amazon Rekognition to categorize the videos.

B. Store the uploaded videos in Amazon EFS and mount the file system to the EC2 instances for the web application. Process the SQS queue with an AWS Lambda function that calls the Amazon Rekognition API to categorize the videos.

C. Host the web application in Amazon S3. Store the uploaded videos in Amazon S3. Use S3 event notification to publish events to the SQS queue. Process the SQS queue with an AWS Lambda function that calls the Amazon Rekognition API to categorize the videos.

D. Use AWS Elastic Beanstalk to launch EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group for the application and launch a working environment to process the SQS queue. Replace the custom software with Amazon Rekognition to categorize the videos.

Correct Answer: A

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March 28, 2022March 28, 2022admin

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1-

A developer has an application that uses an AWS Lambda function to upload files to Amazon S3 and needs the required permissions to perform the task.

The developer already has an IAM user with valid IAM credentials required for Amazon S3. What should a solutions architect do to grant the permissions?

A. Add required IAM permissions in the resource policy of the Lambda function.
B. Create a signed request using the existing IAM credential in the Lambda function.
C. Create a new IAM user and use the existing IAM credentials in the Lambda function
D. Create an IAM execution role with the required permissions and attach the IAM role to the Lambda function

2 –

A financial services company has a web application that serves users in the United States and Europe The application consists of a database tier and a web server tier The database tier consists of a MySQL database hosted in us-east-1

Amazon Route 53 geo proximity routing is used to direct traffic to instances in the closest Region A performance review of the system reveals that European users are not receiving the same level of query performance as those in the United States

Which changes should be made to the database tier to improve performance?

A. Migrate the database to Amazon RDS for MySQL Configure Multi-AZ in one of the European Regions
B. Migrate the database to Amazon DynamoDB Use DynamoDB global tables to enable replication to additional Regions
C. Deploy MySQL instances in each Region Deploy an Application Load Balancer in front of MySQL to reduce the load on the primary instance
D. Migrate the database to an Amazon Aurora global database in MySQL compatibility mode Configure read replicas in one of the European Regions

3 –

A company designs a mobile app for its customers to upload photos to a website. The app needs a secure login with multi-factor authentication (MFA). The company wants to limit the initial build time and the maintenance of the solution

Which solution should a solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements?

A. Use Amazon Cognito Identity with SMS-based MFA.
B. Edit 1 AM policies to require MFA for all users
C. Federate 1 AM against the corporate Active Directory that requires MFA
D. Use Amazon API Gateway and require server-side encryption (SSE) for photos

4 –

A company recently launched a new service that involves medical images. The company scans the images and sends them from its on-premises data center through an AWS Direct Connect connection to Amazon EC2 instances.

After processing is complete, the images are stored in an Amazon S3 bucket.

A company requirement states that the EC2 instances cannot be accessible through the internet. The EC2 instances run in a private subnet, which has a default route back to the on-premises data center for outbound internet access.

Usage of the new service is increasing rapidly. A solutions architect must recommend a solution that meets the company\\’s requirements and reduces the Direct Connect charges.

Which solution accomplishes these goals MOST cost-effectively?

A. Configure a VPC endpoint for Amazon S3. Add an entry to the private subnet\\’s route table for the S3 endpoint.
B. Configure a NAT gateway in a public subnet. Configure the private subnet\\’s route table to use the NAT gateway.
C. Configure Amazon S3 as a file system mount point on the EC2 instances. Access Amazon S3 through the mount.
D. Move the EC2 instances into a public subnet. Configure the public subnet route table to point to an internet gateway.

5 –

A company is designing a cloud communications platform trial is driven by APIs. The application is hosted on Amazon EC2 instances behind a Network Load Balancer (NLB). The company uses Amazon API Gateway to provide external users with access to the application through APIs.

The company wants to protect the platform against web exploits like SQL Injection and also wants to detect and mitigate large, sophisticated DDoS attacks Which combination of solutions provides the MOST protection? (Select TWO.)

A. Use AWS WAF to protect the NLB
B. Use AWS Shield Advanced with the NLB
C. Use AWS WAF to protect Amazon API Gateway
D. Use Amazon GuardDuty with AWS Shield Standard
E. Use AWS Shield Standard with Amazon API Gateway

6 –

A company runs an application on Amazon EC2 Instances. The application is deployed in private subnets in three Availability Zones of the us-east-1 Region.

The instances must be able to connect to the internet to download files The company wants a design that Is highly available across the Region.

Which solution should be implemented to ensure that there are no disruptions to Internet connectivity?

A. Deploy a NAT Instance In a private subnet of each Availability Zone.
B. Deploy a NAT gateway in a public subnet of each Availability Zone.
C. Deploy a transit gateway in a private subnet of each Availability Zone.
D. Deploy an internet gateway in a public subnet of each Availability Zone.

7 –

A solutions architect is designing a new workload in which an AWS Lambda function will access an Amazon DynamoDB table. What are the MOST secure means of granting the Lambda function access to the DynamoDB labia?

A. Create an IAM role with the necessary permissions to access the DynamoDB table Assign the role to the Lambda function.
B. Create a DynamoDB user name and password and give them to the developer to use in the Lambda function.
C. Create an IAM user, and create access and secret keys for the user. Give the user the necessary permissions to access the DynarnoOB table. Have the developer use these keys to access the resources.
D. Create an IAM role allowing access from AWS Lambda Assign the role to the DynamoDB table

8 –

Which action should the solutions architect take to accomplish this?

A. Generate pre-signed URLs for the files
B. Use cross-Region replication to all Regions
C. Use the geo proximity feature of Amazon Route 53
D. Use Amazon CloudFront with the S3 bucket as its origin

Using Amazon S3 Origins, MediaPackage Channels, and Custom Origins for Web Distributions Using Amazon S3 Buckets for Your Origin When you use Amazon S3 as an origin for your distribution, you place any objects that you
want CloudFront to deliver in an Amazon S3 bucket.

Using an existing Amazon S3 bucket as your CloudFront origin server doesn\’t change the bucket in any way; you can still use it as you normally would to store and access Amazon S3 objects at the standard Amazon S3 price. You incur
regular Amazon S3 charges for storing the objects in the bucket.

Using Amazon S3 Buckets Configured as Website Endpoints for Your Origin You can set up an Amazon S3 bucket that is configured as a website endpoint as custom origin with CloudFront.

When you configure your CloudFront distribution, for the origin, enter the Amazon S3 static website hosting endpoint for your bucket. This value appears in the Amazon S3 console, on the Properties tab, in the Static website hosting pane.

For example:
http://bucket-name.s3-website-region.amazonaws.com
For more information about specifying Amazon S3 static website endpoints, see Website endpoints in the Amazon Simple Storage Service Developer Guide. When you specify the bucket name in this format as your origin, you can use
Amazon S3 redirects and Amazon S3 custom error documents.

For more information about Amazon S3 features, see
the Amazon S3 documentation. Using an Amazon S3 bucket as your CloudFront origin server doesn\’t change it in any way.

You can still use it as you normally would and you incur regular Amazon S3 charges. https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudFront/latest/DeveloperGuide/DownloadDistS3AndCust omOrigins.html

9 –

A company runs multiple Amazon EC2 Linux instances in a VPC across two Availability Zones The instances, host applications that use a hierarchical directory structure The applications need to read and write rapidly and concurrently to shared storage
What should a solutions architect do to meet these requirements?

A. Create an Amazon S3 bucket Allow access from all the EC2 instances in the VPC
B. Create an Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) file system Mount the EFS file system from each EC2 instance
C. Create a file system on a Provisioned IOPS SSD (io2) Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume Attach the EBS volume to all the EC2 instances
D. Create file systems on Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volumes that are attached to each EC2 instance Synchronize the EBS volumes across the different EC2 instances

10 –

An eCommerce company is experiencing an increase in user traffic. The company\\’s store is deployed on Amazon EC2 instances as a two-tier two application consisting of a web tier and a separate database tier As traffic increases, the company notices that the architecture is causing significant delays in sending timely marketing and order confirmation
email to users.

The company wants to reduce the time it spends resolving complex email delivery issues and minimize operational overhead What should a solutions architect do to meet these requirements?

A. Create a separate application tier using EC2 instances dedicated to email processing.
B. Configure the web instance to send email through Amazon Simple Email Service (Amazon SES)
C. Configure the web instance to send email through Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
D. Create a separate application tier using EC2 instances dedicated to email processing. Place the instances in an Auto Scaling group.

11 –

A company\\’s security policy requires that alt AWS API activity in its AWS accounts be recorded for periodic auditing. The company needs to ensure that AWS CloudTrail is enabled on all of its current and future AWS accounts using AWS Organizations.

Which solution is MOST secure?

A. At the organization\\’s root define and attach a service control policy (SCP) that permits enabling CloudTrail only
B. Create 1 AM groups in the organization\\’s master account as needed Define and attach a 1 AM policy to the groups that prevent users from disabling CloudTrail
C. Organize accounts into organizational units (OUs) At the organization\\’s root, define and attach a service control policy (SCP) that prevents users from disabling CloudTrail
D. Add all existing accounts under the organization\\’s root Define and attach a service control policy (SCP) to every account that prevents users from disabling CloudTrail

12 –

A company is selling up an application to use an Amazon RDS MySQL DB instance. The database must be architected for high availability across Availability Zones and AWS Regions with minimal downtime.

How should a solutions architect meet this requirement?

A. Set up an RDS MySQL Multi-AZ DB instance. Configure an appropriate backup window.
B. Set up an RDS MySQL Multi-AZ DB instance. Configure a read replica in a different Region.
C. Set up an RDS MySQL Single-AZ DB instance. Configure a read replica in a different Region.
D. Set up an RDS MySQL Single-AZ DB instance. Copy automated snapshots to at least one other Region.

Post answer

1. C, 2. D, 3. A, 4. B, 5. AD, 6. B, 7. A, 8. D, 9. B, 10. B, 11. D, 12. C

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