Latest actual Cisco CCNP Data Center 200-155 Practice test, 200-155 exam dumps 100% free

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Pass4itsure offers the latest Cisco 200-155 practice test free of charge (38Q&As)

QUESTION 1
Which two are benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two )
A. SNMPv3 strong authentication
B. reduced cabling
C. zone port distribution
D. consolidation of LAN and SAN over a common transport
E. native AES-256 encryption of data in flight
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
pass4itsure 200-155 question
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer allocates 12 physical ports to a new VDC. Which command is used to verify VDC port allocation on a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. show vdc port-membership
B. show vdc port-allocation
C. show vdc allocation
D. show vdc membership
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A network design engineer is asked to design a SAN (or a company Which two underlying principles of SAN design should be considered? Choose two.)
A. fault isolation, consolidation while maintaining isolation
B. future growth in LAN infrastructure
C. security management, preferential network security
D. scalability of LAN infrastructure, reduced Ethernet QoS complexity
E. short and long term port density and topology requirements
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
Which two adapters far Cisco UCS B-Series blade servers and C-Series rack servers allow configuration of virtual interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. M71-KR
B. P71E
C. VIC-1225
D. P81E
E. VIC-1280
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
Which option describes the STP requirements for Cisco Fabric Path?
A. MST must be configured an every Cisco Fabric Path VLAN.
B. STP is required only to resolve border link failures
C. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco Fabric Path VLAN
D. STP is not required on Cisco Fabric Path interfaces.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which ports on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects can operate at either 1 Gb/s or 10 Gb/s?
A. Ports 1?
B. None
C. Ports 1?
D. Ports 1?
E. Ports 17?0
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A user is trying to create a new VDC in NX-OS in global configurations mode, but receives an error message What issue prevents the user from creating Virtual Device Contexts?
A. VDCs cannot be created in global configuration mode.
B. The user is not a vdc-admin.
C. The user is not a member of the VDC Power Admin group.
D. The user is not a network-admin.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which option describes Cisco’s virtual device context feature?
A. logical virtualization of a single physical switch
B. logical witches aggregated into a single physical switch
C. logical switches aggregated into multiple physical switches
D. multiple physical switches partitioned to a single virtual switch
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A Cisco UCS administrator wants only the Cisco UCS chassis with four connections between each IOM and the Fabric Interconnect pair to be recognized. Which policy and corresponding action must be configured?
A. Chassis/FEX Discovery Policy, Action: 4-link
B. Chassis/FEX Discovery Policy, Redundancy Action: N+1
C. Rack Management Connection Policy, Action: 4-link
D. Power Policy, Redundancy Action: Grid
E. Rack Server Discovery Policy, Action: 4-link
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which three are the names of configuration tabs that appear in the Navigation Pane of the UCS Manager GUI? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN
B. LAN
C. VSAN
D. Policies
E. Equipment
F. Global
G. Admin
Correct Answer: BEG

QUESTION 11
Which two Cisco data center devices can participate in Fabric Path? (Choose two.)A. Cisco MOS 9500 Series directors
B. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 1000V
E. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
The marketing, research, and business departments of a company each have servers and storage in the SAN fabric connected to a Cisco MDS switch. The storage engineer is asked to ensure that each department’s servers and storage are
isolated from the other departments. Which two steps can the engineer take to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Create VSAN 10, 11, and 12 on the MDS switch.
B. Add marketing devices to VSAN 10, research to VSAN 11, and business to VSAN 12.
C. Create VSAN 10 on the MDS switch.
D. Add marketing, research, and business devices to VSAN 10.
E. Create VSAN 10 and VSAN 11.
F. Add all storage devices to VSAN 10. Add all server devices to VSAN 11.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
Which two modes of setup are offered on the initial setup script on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. Restore
B. Setup
C. Console
D. Serial
E. Management 0
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Which two Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VWware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose two )
A. access control lists
B. QoS marking
C. Network vMotion
D. port state migration
E. DV Port Groups
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is a virtual technology that helps create multiple route tables that function on the same physical router?
A. VSS
B. vPC
C. VRF
D. VSAN
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Layer 3 networks can be logically separated by which technology?
A. bridge domain
B. VRF
C. VLAN
D. tenant
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
What are two advantages to running Fabric Path in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose two.)
A. provides multi chassis Ether Channel capabilities
B. allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized
C. has L2 multipath forwarding capacities
D. uses B02 1 q trunks to ensure VLANs are propagated through the topology
E. uses TTL field to provide loop mitigation
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 18
A network engineer wants to configure switch ports on Cisco Nexus 2000 and 2200 Fabric Extender switches that are connected to a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch. Which two options allow this configuration? (Choose two)
A. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
B. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5600 using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
C. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
D. Connect to each at the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using a console cable then configure the FEX switch ports.
E. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5500 switch using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 19
What are two main benefits of standardized open API’s in a multi-vendor environment? (Choose two)
A. automation
B. clustering
C. interoperability
D. centralized management
E. configuration management
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 20
Which two options are advantages of a spine and leaf architecture? (Choose two )
A. robust multipathing
B. traffic that is optimized for east-west communication
C. star topology
D. traffic that is optimized for north-south communication
E. exponential scalability
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 21
What is the primary benefit of Cisco Global Load Balancing Solution?
A. implements business continuity and disaster recovery by optimizing the DNS infrastructure
B. encrypts data communication
C. accelerates content delivery through a designated content cache engine
D. adds resiliency to the core layer of a data center
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which Cisco Nexus 1000V component is the equivalent of a line card on a standard Cisco Nexus switch?
A. Virtual Ethernet Module
B. Virtual Supervisor Module
C. Virtual Service BladeD. Virtual Security Gateway
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which tool organizes workflows to automate simple and complex actions on infrastructure?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco DCNM
D. Cisco UCS server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which three are the three primary methods to configure Cisco UCS B-Series systems? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP
B. XML API
C. UCS Manager GUI
D. IPMI
E. UCS Manager CLI
F. CIM-XML
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 25
Which management platform reduces server provisioning tome by automatically performing an inventory and deep discovery when new devices are attached?
A. UCS Manager
B. UCS Server
C. CDP Manager
D. Enterprise Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
A customer deployed Cisco B200 blades with service profiles. The customer experiences an outage on one of the Cisco B200 blades that will be replaced with a spare blade already in inventory. Which two steps should the customer take to
replace the failed blade? (Choose two.)
A. Disassociate the service profile from the failed blade.
B. Associate the service profile to the spare blade.
C. Create a new service profile for the spare blade.
D. Delete the service profile from the spare blade.
E. Create a new service profile template for the failed blade.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 27
Which feature monitors state transitions of components and processes in Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. finite state machine
B. state monitor
C. state manager
D. discovery
E. logical state arbiter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
A network engineer is migrating the server farm from 1 Gb/s Ethernet connectivity la 10 Gb/s Ethernet connectivity What two Cisco Nexus Fabric Extenders support 10 Gb/s server connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Nexus 2148T
B. Nexus 2232PP
C. Nexus 2248TP
D. Nexus 2248PQ
E. Nexus 2224TP
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 29
Which statements are valid for a local SPAN configuration’? (Choose two.)
A. Source and destination interface must be on the same host
B. Source and destination interfaces can be on different hosts
C. Destination vEthernet interface can be on a different VLAN than the source
D. Destination interface can be a physical port
E. Destination interface cannot be a physical port
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
When using a Cisco UCS Director, a typical workflow consists of which two terms? (Choose Two )
A. Resource Manager
B. Workflow Designer
C. Scheduler
D. Activity Planner
E. Predefined Tasks
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 31
A UCS administrator has been tasked with creating a new server profile Which two pools can be used to assign Layer 2 interface information? (Choose two)
A. Server
B. Mac Address
C. IP address
D. UUD
E. WWN
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 32
An engineer the UCS Fabric interconnects for network connectivity to the data center LAN and SAN. Which two ports types need to be configured to allow traffic to Bow properly? (Choose two)
A. Ethernet uplink
B. server uplink
C. appliance
D. Fibre Channel uplink
E. Fibre Channel storage
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 33
Which vPC connection creates the illusion of a single control plane?
A. vPC keepalive link
B. vPC control Iink
C. vPC management link
D. vPC peer link
E. vPC overlay link
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
Which component of Cisco UCS B-Series is also referred to as a FEX?
A. UCS 5108
B. UCS 2104XP
C. UCS 6248UP
D. UCS 6120
E. UCS MK72-KR
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which two components are part of the Cisco Unified Computing System 2104 I/O Module? (Choose two)
A. multiplexer
B. chassis management console
C. finite state machine
D. data management engine
E. chassis management controller
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 36
Which feature monitors state transitions of components and processes in Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. logical state arbiter
B. discovery
C. finite state machine
D. state monitor
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 37
Drag the WAAS component feature on the left to the corresponding function on the right
pass4itsure 200-155 question

QUESTION 38
Drag the Network virtualization technology on the left to the correct definition on the right.

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Latest actual Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-165 Practice test, 300-165 exam dumps 100% free

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QUESTION 1
Which two options are limitations of NetFlow Version 5? (Choose two.)
A. no support for IPv6, Layer 2, or MPLS fields
B. fixed field specifications
C. excessive network utilization
D. analyzes all packets on the interface
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Which two actions are required before FIPS is configured in Cisco MDS? (Choose two.)
A. Passwords must be a minimum of 10 characters in length.
B. SNMP v2 or v3 must be enabled.
C. Remote authentication must occur utilizing RADIUS/TACACS+.
D. Disable VRRP.
E. Delete all SSH server RSA key pairs.
F. Delete all IKE policies utilizing MD5 or DES for encryption.
G. Enable the FC-FIPS feature.
H. Disable SSH.
Correct Answer: DF
Explanation

QUESTION 3
If you are using NAT in your data center, which load balancing would you be likely to use within your GLBP configuration?
A. none
B. round-robin
C. host dependent
D. weighted
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which parameter is configurable when setting up logging on the Connectivity Management Processor?
A. the number of CMP messages to save in a single log file
B. the number of times the log can roll over
C. the directory to save the log file to
D. the severity threshold of the messages to log
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco NX-OS feature allows transparent Layer 2 extension between sites?
A. FabricPath
B. ETV
C. OTV
D. vPC
E. LISP
F. TrustSec
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which three options of encryption are supported in PIM hello messages? (Choose three.)
A. cleartext
B. DES-SHA1
C. DES-CBC3-SHA
D. Cisco Type 7
E. RC4-SHA
F. 3DES
Correct Answer: ADF
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Which task must be done before a zone set takes effect?
A. Add a member to the zone.
B. Enter the exit config t command.
C. Enter the copy running-config startup-config command.
D. Enter the zoneset activate name <zone-name> vsan <vsan-#> command.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-165 question
What is the maximum IPv6 unicast route memory allocated?
A. 4 MB
B. 8 MB
C. 1024 MB
D. 1 GB
E. 5 MB
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-165 question
Which two outcomes occur when the state is Other? (Choose two.)
A. The VSAN on each end of the connection does not match.
B. The interface is not an E Port.
C. The interface is not an F Port.
D. The interface is administratively shut down.
E. Cisco Fabric Services is not enabled.
F. NPIV should be disabled.
G. The interface is functioning, but may have errors.
H. Encryption is not enabled.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which command ensures that a learned MAC address is stored within NVRAM?
A. switchport port-security mac-address address [vlan vlan-ID]
B. switchport port-security
C. switchport port-security mac-address sticky
D. feature port-security
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 11
In Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches, which three statements about SPAN are true? (Choose three.)
A. SPAN source ports can be the in-band interface to the supervisor engine control plane of the switch.
B. SPAN monitor ports can be routed ports.
C. SPAN destination ports can be configured in only one SPAN session at a time.
D. The Cisco Nexus 7000 supports virtual SPAN feature.
E. SPAN destination port actively participates in spanning-tree instance.
F. SPAN destinations cannot be an RSPAN VLAN.
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Which four statements about reserved VLANs in Cisco NX-OS are true? (Choose four.)
A. The range of reserved VLANs cannot be changed.
B. The number of reserved VLANs is 96.
C. A change to the range of reserved VLANs can be performed only in the VDC default.
D. A write-erase procedure restores the default reserved VLAN range.
E. The number of reserved VLANs is 128.
F. A reload is needed for changes to take place.
G. The configuration must be saved for changes to take place.
Correct Answer: CEFG
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Which three options are capabilities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch? (Choose three.)
A. All interface and supervisor modules are accessible from the front.
B. All interface and supervisor modules are accessible from the rear.
C. single power supply only
D. multiple power supply option for redundancy
E. up to 180.7 Tbps forwarding capacity with Fabric-2 modules with 10-slot switches
F. up to 18.7 Tbps forwarding capacity with Fabric-2 modules with 18-slot switches
Correct Answer: ADF
Explanation

QUESTION 14
Which command specifies a load-balancing method based on the MAC address of a host where the same forwarder is always used for a particular host while the number of GLBP group members remains unchanged?
A. load-balancing host-dependent
B. load-balancing mac-pinning
C. load-balancing round-robin
D. load-balancing weighted
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 15
In OTV, how are the VLANs split when a site has two edge devices?
A. They are configured manually by user.
B. They are split in half among each edge device.
C. They are split as odd and even VLAN IDs on each edge device.
D. It is not possible to have two edge devices in same site.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which protocol is responsible for the discovery of FCoE capabilities on a remote switch?
A. DCE
B. DCBx
C. CDP
D. LLDP
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Data Center Bridging Capabilities Exchange Protocol (DCBX): a discovery and capability exchange protocol that is used for conveying capabilities and configuration of the above features between neighbors to ensure consistent configuration
across the network. This protocol leverages functionality provided by IEEE 802.1AB (LLDP). It is actually included in the 802.1az standard.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Data_center_bridging

QUESTION 17
Which command enables NPIV on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches and Cisco MDS switches?
A. switch(config)# npiv enable
B. switch(config)# npivon
C. switch(config)# feature npiv
D. switch(config)# npiv proxy
E. switch(config)# np proxy-enable
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This command enables NPIV for all VSANs on the switch.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx- os/san_switching/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX- OS_SAN_Switching_Configuration_Guide/Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX-
OS_SAN_Switching_Configuration_Guide_chapter2.html

QUESTION 18
Which statement about core-edge SAN topology is true?
A. Converged FCoE links connect the core and edge MDS switches.
B. The SAN core connects to the network aggregation layer.
C. Separate links with the same I/O are used for SAN and LAN traffic.
D. Storage devices are accessed via FCoE over the LAN network.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Aggregation layer of the data center provides connectivity for the Access layer switches in the server farm, an aggregates them into a smaller number of interfaces to be connected into the Core layer. In most data center environments,
the Aggregation layer is the transition point between the purely Layer 3 routed Core layer, and the Layer 2-switched Access layer. 802.1Q trunks extend the server farm VLANs between Access and Aggregation layers. The Aggregation layer
also provides a common connection point to insert services into the data flows between clients and servers, or between tiers of servers in a multi-tier application.

QUESTION 19
Which configuration is specific to Cisco TelePresence System seed devices?
A. radius server radius-server-name
B. aaa session-id common
C. radius-server vsa send authentication
D. aaa new-model
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which two statements about SAN zoning on Cisco Nexus switches are true? (Choose two.)
A. Unlike configured zones, default zone information is not distributed to the other switches in the fabric.
B. Traffic can either be permitted or denied among members of the default zone. This information is not distributed to all switches. It must be configured in each switch.
C. The settings for default zone configurations cannot be changed.
D. To activate a zone set, you must copy the running configuration to the startup configuration after the zone set is configured.
E. Soft zoning restrictions will not prevent a source device from accessing a device outside its zone, if the source knows the Fibre Channel ID of the destination.
F. Hard zoning is enforced by the hardware on each FLOGI sent by an N Port.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Each member of a fabric (in effect a device attached to an Nx port) can belong to any zone. If a member is not part of any active zone, it is considered to be part of the default zone. Therefore, if no zone set is active in the fabric, all devices
are considered to be in the default zone. Even though a member can belong to multiple zones, a member that is part of the default zone cannot be part of any other zone. The switch determines whether a port is a member of the default zone
when the attached port comes up. Unlike configured zones, default zone information is not distributed to the other switches in the fabric Traffic can either be permitted or denied among members of the default zone. This information is not
distributed to all switches; it must be configured in each switch.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_2/configuration/g uides/fabric/DCNM-SAN/fm_fabric/zone.html

QUESTION 21
Which statement describes what happens if a new EPLD version is released with a new Cisco NX-OS version for a Cisco Nexus switch, but these EPLDs are not upgraded at the same time that NX-OS is upgraded?
A. Any new hardware or software feature that depends on the updated EPLD image is disabled until upgraded.
B. Modules that use an updated EPLD image remain offline until the EPLD is upgraded.
C. The EPLD image version mismatch is detected by the supervisor, which automatically initiates an upgrade.
D. The Cisco NX-OS upgrade fails as a result of the mismatch between EPLDs and NX-OS versions.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Which command is used to associate EID-to-RLOC for a LISP site?
A. #feature lisp
B. #ipv6 lisp itr
C. #ip lisp database-mapping
D. #ip lisp itr map-resolver
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 23
Which feature must be enabled for Cisco TrustSec FC Link Encryption to work on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch?
A. crypto IKE
B. port security
C. LDAP
D. FC-SP
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 24
Which three attributes encompass a local user account on a Cisco NX-OS device? (Choose three.)
A. expiration date
B. cisco-avpair
C. password
D. AAA server address
E. user roles
F. bind user DN
G. user privileges
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation

QUESTION 25
Which command activates the port security database for VSAN 1 regardless of conflicts?
A. port-security commit vsan 1
B. no port-security auto-learn vsan 1
C. port-security activate vsan 1 force
D. port-security database vsan 1Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 26
Which three options are capabilities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Supervisor Module? (Choose three.)
A. hardware forwarding on the supervisor module
B. fully decoupled control plane and data plane with no forwarding on the supervisor module
C. Sup2 requires Cisco NX-OS 5.1 or later.
D. Sup2 requires Cisco NX-OS 6.1 or later.
E. Sup2E supports 8+1 VDC with the N7K-VDC1K9 license per chassis.
F. Sup2 supports 8+1 VDCs with the N7K-VDC1K9 license per chassis.
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-165 question
Which two commands are missing from this configuration that an admin needs to integrate a Cisco Nexus 5000 switch with vCenter to leverage VM-FEX? (Choose two.)
A. vmware dvs datacenter-name
B. vmware dvs
C. remote ip address port 80 vrf
D. connection-type vmware
E. installation-method auto
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 28
Which three parameters can be set when configuring a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch to use a TACACS+ server? (Choose three.)
A. group-size
B. deadtime
C. timeout
D. keep-alive
E. retransmit
Correct Answer: BCE
Explanation

QUESTION 29
Which item represents the process that allows FCoE multihop using T11 standard FC-BB- 5?
A. distributed FCF
B. FIP proxy
C. N Port proxy
D. FIP snooping
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
FIP snooping is used in multi-hop FCoE environments. FIP snooping is a frame inspection method that can be used by FIP snooping capable DCB devices to monitor FIP frames and apply policies based on the information in those frames.
This allows for:
Enhanced FCoE security (Prevents FCoE MAC spoofing.) Creates FC point-to-point links within the Ethernet LAN Allows auto-configuration of ACLs based on name server information read in the FIP frames
Reference: http://www.definethecloud.net/fcoe-initialization-protocol-fip-deep-dive/

QUESTION 30
Which two elements must be configured correctly for Cisco TrustSec Fibre Channel Link Encryption to work on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch? (Choose two.)
A. AES-GMAC
B. key
C. salt
D. AAA
E. group
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 31
Which FCoE component is responsible for the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of Fibre Channel frames in Ethernet?
A. distributed FCF
B. FCoE node
C. FCoE logical endpoint
D. Fibre Channel forwarder
E. FCoE forwarder
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The FCoE Logical Endpoint (FCoE_LEP) is responsible for the encapsulation and deencapsulation functions of the FCoE traffic. FCoE_LEP has the standard Fibre Channel layers, starting with FC-2 and continuing up the Fibre Channel
Protocol stack.
Reference: https://www.safaribooksonline.com/library/view/ccna-data- center/9780133860429/ch11lev3sec5.html

QUESTION 32
Which example creates an Embedded Event Manager policy allowing the CLI command to execute, and triggers an SNMP notification when a user enters configuration mode? A)
pass4itsure 300-165 question
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 33
When implementing Cisco Adapter FEX, which setting on the virtual interface card on the Cisco UCS C-Series Server must be configured?
A. uplink failover
B. PXE boot
C. network interface virtualization
D. VM-FEX
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 34
Which statement about the MPLS feature set is true?
A. It is not license dependent.
B. It can be installed from any VDC.
C. It can be enabled only in the default VDC.
D. It must be installed from the default VDC.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 35
When creating a VDC on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch, which command in the VDC designates that only 10 port channels can be created in that VDC?
A. allocate resource port-channel 10
B. limit-resource port-channel minimum 0 maximum 10
C. allow-resource port-channel maximum 10
D. port-channel maximum 10
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 36
Which option shows how to configure an ERSPAN Type III source session in Cisco NX-OS 6.2?
pass4itsure 300-165 question
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 37
Which two advantages does FabricPath have over Spanning Tree in implementing a loop- free network topology design? (Choose two.)
A. Blocked links can be brought in to service if active links fail.
B. Convergence times are faster.C. Multipath forwarding is supported for unicast and multicast Layer 2 and Layer 3 traffic.
D. Unknown unicast addresses are flooded in through the originating port.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 38
Between which two types of ports does FIP establish Fibre Channel virtual links? (Choose two.)
A. VE Ports and VE Ports
B. N Ports and F Ports
C. VN Ports and VF Ports
D. VP Ports and VE Ports
E. VE Ports and VF Ports
F. E Ports and E Ports
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
FIP aims to establish virtual FC links between VN_Ports and VF_Ports (ENode to FCF), as well as between pairs of VE_Ports (FCF to FCF), since these are the only legal combinations supported by native Fibre Channel fabrics. Standards-
compliant implementations are not required to support both forms of virtual FC links, and Cisco has decided to focus initially on implementing FIP only between ENodes and FCFs. FCF-to- FCF connectivity is considered a strategic direction
for end-to-end FCoE deployments, but the short-term urgency is for FCoE adoption between CNAs and the Fibre Channel fabric perimeter, where unified fabric can offer the greatest capital expenditure (CapEx) savings today.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-series- switches/white_paper_c11-560403.html

QUESTION 39
Which two functions are enabled when you set up vPC+ at the FabricPath edge? (Choose two.)
A. the ability to attach Cisco Fabric Extenders in FEX active/active mode
B. the ability to stop all Layer 3 egress traffic
C. the ability to attach servers to edge switches with port-channel teaming
D. the ability to attach additional Classic Ethernet switches in vPC+ mode
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 40
Which feature allows routing protocols to remain in the data path during a supervisor failover?
A. Cisco Nonstop Forwarding
B. Cisco Stateful Switchover
C. Cisco Express Forwarding
D. Cisco Route Processor Redundancy
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 41
Which two RFCs are supported by Cisco NX-OS devices for OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
A. RFC 2238
B. RFC 1918
C. RFC 1583
D. RFC 2453
E. RFC 2740
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 42
Which three options are CallHome predefined destination profiles that are supported on Cisco NX-OS? (Choose three.)
A. CiscoTAC-1
B. full-text-destination
C. pager-xml-destination
D. short-text-destination
E. xml-text-destination
F. pager-json-destination
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation

QUESTION 43
Which two statements about SAN zoning on Cisco Nexus switches are true? (Choose two.)
A. Zoning is enforced by examining the destination ID field.
B. Devices can only belong to one zone.
C. Only one zone set can be activated at any time.
D. A zone can only be a member one zone set.
E. Zoning must be administered from the primary SAN switch in the fabric.
F. Zone configuration changes are nondisruptive.
Correct Answer: CF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A zone set can be activated or deactivated as a single entity across all switches in the fabric. Only one zone set can be activated at any time. If zoning is not activated, all devices are members of the default zone. If zoning is activated, any
device that is not in an active zone (a zone that is part of an active zone set) is a member of the default zone. Zoning can be administered from any switch in the fabric. When you activate a zone (from any switch), all switches in the fabric
receive the active zone set. Additionally, full zone sets are distributed to all switches in the fabric, if this feature is enabled in the source switch.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/storage/san_switches/mds9000/sw/san- os/quick/guide/qcg_zones.html

QUESTION 44
How does addition of bandwidth between spine and leaf switches in a FabricPath architecture get utilized?
A. Links between the same set of switches are automatically added to a port channel.
B. Adding additional bandwidth is handled dynamically using the 802.1AX protocol.
C. Traffic is load shared automatically across the available paths to the destination.
D. FabricPath uses hardware bonding of physical interfaces to form higher-speed links.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 45
What configuration is required when implementing FCoE?
A. disable LAN traffic on the interface
B. configure PortFast on the access port
C. permit all VLANs on the interface
D. permit all VSANs on the interface
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
DCBX allows the switch to send a LAN Logical Link Status (LLS) message to a directly- connected CNA. Enter the shutdown lan command to send an LLS-Down message to the CNA. This command causes all VLANs on the interface that
are not enabled for FCoE to be brought down. If a VLAN on the interface is enabled for FCoE, it continues to carry SAN traffic without any interruption.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/fcoe/b_Cisco_Ne xus_5000_Series_NX-OS_Fibre_Channel_over_Ethernet_Configuration_Guide_/Cisco_Nexus_5000_Series_NX- OS_Fibre_Channel_over_Ethernet_Configuration_Guide__chapter3.html

QUESTION 46
Which standard has Cisco used to implement VM-FEX?
A. IEEE 802.1BR
B. IEEE 802.1Qbb
C. IEEE 802.1Qaz
D. IEEE 802.1p
E. IEEE 802.1x
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 47
Which two reasons explain why a server on VLAN 10 is unable to join a multicast stream that originates on VLAN 20? (Choose two.)
A. IGMP snooping and mrouter are not enabled on VLAN 10.
B. VLAN 20 has no IGMP snooping querier defined and VLAN 10 has no mrouter.
C. The mrouter on VLAN 20 does not see the PIM join.
D. The mrouter must be on VLAN 10 and VLAN 20.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
IGMP snooping is a mechanism to constrain multicast traffic to only the ports that have receivers attached. The mechanism adds efficiency because it enables a Layer 2 switch to selectively send out multicast packets on only the ports that
need them. Without IGMP snooping, the switch floods the packets on every port. The switch “listens” for the exchange of IGMP messages by the router and the end hosts. In this way, the switch builds an IGMP snooping table that has a list of
all the ports that have requested a particular multicast group.
The mrouter port is simply the port from the switch point of view that connects to a multicast router. The presence of at least one mrouter port is absolutely essential for the IGMP snooping operation to work across switches. All Catalyst
platforms have the ability to dynamically learn about the mrouter port. The switches passively listen to either the Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) hellos or the IGMP query messages that a multicast router sends out periodically.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst-6500-series- switches/68131-cat-multicast-prob.html

QUESTION 48
During the design of a new Cisco Data Center Network, a customer asked when VM-FEX would be used with Cisco Nexus 1000V Switch. Which scenario is most appropriate?
A. when a host must utilize a vSwitch and a distributed vSwitch
B. when using Non-UCS Servers to provide virtualization services with Nexus FEX modules
C. They are mutually exclusive of each other.
D. when a Cisco UCS C-Series server requires Cisco Nexus 1000V Switch to provide VM connectivity
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 49
Drag the description on the left to the most appropriate FCoE protocol or feature on the right.
pass4itsure 300-165 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ENODES: During FLOGI or FDISC, the ENode advertises the addressing modes it supports. If the FC switch supports an addressing mode that the ENode uses, the virtual link can be established, and the devices can communicate.
FIP: FIP is the set of control plane functions that enable discovery of FCoE-capable devices across FCoE passthrough switches and establishment of legal combinations of virtual links.
FCF: FCoE Initialization Protocol (FIP) is the FCoE control protocol responsible for establishing and maintaining Fibre Channel virtual links between pairs of FCoE devices (ENodes or FCFs). During the virtual link establishment phase, FIP
first discovers FCoE VLANs and remote virtual FC interfaces; then it performs virtual link initialization functions (fabric login [FLOGI] and fabric discovery [FDISC], or exchange link parameters [ELP]) similar to their native Fibre Channel
equivalents. After the virtual link is established, Fibre Channel payloads can be exchanged on the virtual link, and FIP remains in the background to perform virtual link maintenance functions; it continuously verifies reachability between the
two virtual FC interfaces on the Ethernet network, and it offers primitives to delete the virtual link in response to administrative actions to that effect. This document does not describe the virtual link maintenance functions of FIP.

QUESTION 50
VSANs and SAN Zoning have similar security goals, but also have different qualities. Drag the characteristic on the left to the appropriate column heading (VSAN or Zoning) on the right.
pass4itsure 300-165 question
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference

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QUESTION 1
Which component is required to run FCoE?
A. converged network adapter
B. iSCSI gateway
C. host bus adapter
D. Fibre Channel adapter
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Computers can connect to FCoE with converged network adapters (CNAs), which contain
both Fibre Channel host bus adapter (HBA) and Ethernet Network Interface Card (NIC) functionality on the
same adapter card. CNAs have one or more physical Ethernet ports. FCoE encapsulation can be done in
software with a conventional Ethernet network interface card, however FCoE CNAs offload (from the CPU)
the low level frame processing and SCSI protocol functions traditionally performed by Fibre Channel host
bus adapters.

QUESTION 2
You have a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series switch. What is the default load-balancing hash mechanism for
traffic on FCoE port channels?
A. the source MAC address
B. the source IP address and the destination IP address
C. the source MAC address and the destination MAC address
D. the source TCP or UDP port and the destination TCP or UDP port
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: On Nexus 5500 the default load balancing mechanism on the LACP port- channel for FCoE
traffic is “source-destination”. In this default state, all the FCoE traffic takes the same link in the port-
channel when the Nexus 5500 forwards frames over FCoE VE ports. In order to enable all links to be used
in the port-channel for FCoE traffic, enter the port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest-port
command to configure Nexus 5500 “port-channel load balancing” to “source-dest-port”. With this
configuration “source- destination-oxid” load balancing is used for FCoE traffic.

QUESTION 3
You must configure resiliency for Fibre Channel uplink ports on Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects. Which
feature should you configure?
A. an appliance port
B. vPC
C. a port channel
D. a unified storage port
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 4
What is the most common design requirement when creating a data center solution?
A. high availability with disaster recovery
B. multicore CPU serversC. traffic inspection for inbound traffic
D. virtualization of network resources
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Which two actions must be performed when you configure Cisco VN-Link in hardware? (Choose two.)
A. Create a distributed virtual switch in Cisco UCS Manager.
B. Add an ESX host to the distributed virtual switch in Cisco UCS Manager.
C. Create a port profile and profile clients in Cisco UCS Manager.
D. Create a standard switch on an ESXi host and map the network adapters to the switch.
E. Create a distributed virtual switch under the datacenter folder in VMware vCenter.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which two platforms support the FCoE protocol? (Choose two)
A. Cisco Nexus 2332TQ Series
B. Cisco MDS 9148S Series
C. Cisco Nexus 7010 Series
D. Cisco MDS 9222i Series
E. Cisco Nexus 2248TP Series
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Spanning Tree Protocol runs at which functional layer of the data center?
A. core layer
B. access layer
C. application layer
D. network layer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 8
You deploy new server infrastructure by using a Cisco UCS platform. Winch two design options can you
use to increase the redundancy of the new compute solution’ (Choose two.)
A. a 10-Gb uplink port
B. a pin vNic in the server profile to a specific Fabric Interconnect node that has failover disabled
C. an uplink port in a port channel configuration
D. static pinning at the server ports
E. more than one server port to connect the Cisco UCS B-Series blade IOM
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Which two options are supported on Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects that use native Fibre Channel
connectivity? (Choose two)
A. iSCSI
B. NFS
C. DAS
D. SAN
E. iFCP
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which technology provides the ability to use all links in a LAN topology by providing an active-active path
to the upstream switch?
A. STP
B. vPC
C. PVST+
D. RSTP
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 11
When you configure FCIP, which two types of acceleration can you enable to maximize WAN link
utilization? (Choose two)
A. SCSI write
B. link
C. SCSI tape
D. WAN
E. IP
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps5989/products_configuration_guide_chapter09186
a0080664e20.html

QUESTION 12
What are two benefits of a service insertion that is mediated through the Cisco APIC instead of the
classical Ethernet model? (Choose two.)
A. provides Layer 5 service insertion capability
B. provides Layer 7 service insertion capability
C. provides policies that can manage the network and service appliances
D. can automate the service insertion
E. provides built-in services, such as Cisco ACE Web Application Firewall and ADC
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 13
What are common switching protocols that are used in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Token Ring
B. FDDI
C. Ethernet
D. MPLS
E. Frame Relay
F. APPN/APPI
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 14
You plan to use vPC+ in a FabricPath topology. What are two characteristics of a vPC+ switch ID?
(Choose two.)
A. must he set to 255
B. must be set manually
C. can be reused in the FabricPath topology
D. must be the same on each vPC+ peer
E. must be different on each vPC+ peer
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 15
Which option can be used to provide a nonproprietary method of load balancing and redundancy between
the access and aggregation layers in the data canter?
A. vPC
B. PAgP
C. LACP
D. host vPC
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 16
You must use one logical uplink for Fibre Channel traffic and Ethernet traffic on a Cisco UCS system.
Which type of port should you use to accomplish this task?
A. FCoE storage
B. server
C. FCoE uplink
D. uplink
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Server and Uplink Ports on the Fabric Interconnect Each fabric interconnect has a set of ports
in a fixed port module that you can configure as either server ports or uplink Ethernet ports. These ports
are not reserved. They cannot be used by a Cisco UCS instance until you configure them. You can addexpansion modules to increase the number of uplink ports on the fabric interconnect or to add uplink Fibre
Channel ports to the fabric interconnect.
You need to create LAN pin groups and SAN pin groups to pin traffic from servers to an uplink port. Each
fabric interconnect can include the following types of ports:
Server Ports
Server ports handle data traffic between the fabric interconnect and the adapter cards on the servers. You
can only configure server ports on the fixed port module. Expansion modules do not include server ports.
Uplink Ethernet Ports
Uplink Ethernet ports handle Ethernet traffic between the fabric interconnect and the next layer of the
network. All network-bound Ethernet traffic is pinned to one of these ports. By default, Ethernet ports are
unconfigured. However, you can configure them to function in the following ways:
Server
Uplink
FCoE
Appliance
You can configure uplink Ethernet ports on either the fixed module or an expansion module.
Uplink Fibre Channel Ports
Uplink Fibre Channel ports handle FCoE traffic between the fabric interconnect and the next layer of the
network. All network-bound FCoE traffic is pinned to one of these ports. By default, Fibre Channel ports
are uplink. However, you can configure them to function as Fibre Channel storage ports. This is useful in
cases where a Cisco UCS requires a connection to a Direct-Attached Storage (DAS) device. You can only
configure uplink Fibre Channel ports on an expansion module. The fixed module does not include uplink
Fibre Channel ports.

QUESTION 17
You use Cisco UCS Central to manage Cisco UCS. Which statement accurately describes how local and
global policies are applied?
A. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS
Director.
B. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Manager, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco
UCS Central.
C. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Director, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco
UCS Central.
D. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS
Manager.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Which technology uses TCP as a block I/O transport?
A. iSCSI
B. NFS v4
C. CIFS
D. FCoE
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 19
Which statement accurately describes VSAN-based QoS when the same flow is present in two class maps
that are associated to a policy map?
A. The highest QoS value is used.
B. The lowest QoS value is used.
C. The QoS value ot the class map that is attached first takes effect.D. The QoS value ot the class map that is attached last takes effect.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps5989/products_configuration_guide_chapter09186
a0080663141.html

QUESTION 20
A customer is interested in endpoint security at the access layer, which option is Cisco recommended?
A. ACLs
B. DAI
C. TrustSec
D. stateful inspection
E. UDLD
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 21
You plan to extend the Layer 2 domain by using OTV in multicast mode What must you consider?
A. The same site ID must be used on all of the edge devices on all of the sites.
B. The join interface must run IGMPv3
C. The OTV site VLAN must be extended over the overlay.
D. The site OTV VLAN must be the same on all of the AED routers on all of the sites.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Which components share a physical interface in a VDC deployment?
A. two VDCs for Ethernet traffic
B. storage VDC for FCoE traffic and a VDC for Ethernet traffic
C. two storage VDCs for FCoE traffic
D. interface VLAN and a VDC
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 23
LISP provides which capability?
A. host connectivity redundancy
B. physical host mobility
C. VM mobility
D. VXLAN mobility
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 24
Refer to the Exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-160 question
You need to allocate all interfaces on the same port ASIC to the same VDC. Which ports share an ASIC?
A. ports 1-12
B. ports 9-17
C. ports 9-13
D. ports 1-17
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 25
You need to ensure that VXLAN connectivity can survive a chassis failure in a vPC configuration using
Cisco Nexus 9300 Series switches. Which address type should be bound to the VLAN NVE tunnel for
VTEP to ensure resiliency?
A. anycast
B. unicast
C. multicast
D. broadcastCorrect Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 26
What is the default CoS value for FCoE packets on a storage VDC?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
E. 7
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 27
Which statement regarding network management for the data center is true?
A. Flexible NetFlow can be used to provide enhanced network anomaly and security detection.
B. The Network Analysis Module is best deployed in the core for highest visibility.
C. NetFlow Support is available on most IOS and Nexus products, excluding the Nexus 1000v
D. NetFlow Data Export is best positioned on the Nexus 5500 at the access or aggregation layer.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 28
Which use case requires a design that contains multiple VRF instances in a VDC?
A. Provide VRF-aware services to all Layer 3 interfaces.
B. Provide a route policy for incoming packets.
C. Provide routing updates between Layer 3 interfaces
D. Provide Layer 3 isolation within a VDC
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-160 question
Which two descriptions of the purpose of the L1-L2 links between FI A and FI B are true? (Choose two)
A. synchronizes the configuration information
B. provides a vPC peer link between the fabric interconnects.
C. allows each fabric interconnect to monitor the status of the other fabric interconnect continuously.
D. provides an alternate data path if an upstream link fails.
E. migrates VIFs from FI A to FI B if FI fails.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 30
Which three actions must you perform to implement Cisco FabricPath on a data center network? (Choose
three )
A. Configure the VLAN in FabricPath mode
B. Configure the interface to use the STP type of normal
C. Configure the interfaces in FabricPath mode
D. Configure the interfaces in trunk mode
E. Enable the IS-IS featureF. Install the FabricPath feature set
Correct Answer: ACF
Explanation

QUESTION 31
Which description of UDLD aggressive mode is true?
A. is enabled by default on all fiber-optic interfaces
B. can be configured on point-to-multipoint links only
C. is enabled by default on copper interfaces
D. can be configured on point-to-point links only
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 32
Cisco FabricPath is implemented in a data center. You plan lo implement anycast HSRP. What is an
advantage of anycast HSRP as compared HSRPv2?
A. Up to four HSRP gateways can forward traffic simultaneously.
B. HSRP gateways use BFD for faster failure detection
C. An HSRP group can be secured by using MD5.
D. Up to six HSRP gateways can forward traffic simultaneously.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 33
Which two options are reasons to use Layer 3 routing to segment a data center instead of Layer 2
switching? (Choose two.)
A. limit the scope Spanning Tree Protocol
B. limit the scope simplify design
C. broadcast flooding
D. ease of routing protocol configuration
E. cost
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 34
In a three-tier SAN topology, which network layer should you connect the SAN initiators to?
A. storage edge
B. core
C. hostedge
D. distribution
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 35
Which feature can be used to deploy overlapping IP address spaces within a tenant in the Cisco ACI
fabric?
A. private networks
B. external routed networks
C. L3Out
D. bridge domains
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 36
Which statement accurately describes Cisco NSF?
A. To configure NSF for an OSPF routing environment, all Area 0 devices and ABRs must be NSF-aware
and must be configured for OSPF graceful restart.
B. To configure NSF for an IS-IS routing environment, only L1 routers must be NSF-aware and must be
configured for IS-IS graceful restart
C. To configure NSF for a BGP routing environment, all neighboring devices must be NSF- aware and
must be configured for BGP graceful restart
D. To configure NSF for an IS-IS routing environment, only L2 routers must be NSF-aware and must be
configured for IS-IS graceful restart
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 37
In order to provide a specific UCS B-Series blade access to a dedicated uplink on a Fabric interconnect
with multiple uplinks connected, which item must to be configured?
A. vNIC placement policy
B. IOM Port Group
C. Static Pinning Policy
D. LAN Pin Group
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 38
Which two statements accurately describe a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect cluster? (Choose two )
A. Only the active Fabric Interconnect forwards data traffic
B. The Fabric Interconnect cluster uses a Cisco UCS B-Senes Blade Server chassis to forward data when
the L1-L2 links are down
C. The Fabric Interconnect cluster uses a virtual IP address for management connections
D. The Fabric Interconnect uses L1-L2 links to forward data when the primary Fabric Interconnect uplinks
are down.
E. primary Fabric Inter connect node conies up after a failure, the node compares the Cisco UCS system
database version to Fabric Interconnect
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 39
Which two types of connections can be used to build data center interconnects via vPC? (Choose two)A. company-owned DWDM
B. service providers MPLS
C. service provider IP
D. service provider DWDM
E. service provider VPLS
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 40
You plan to configure OTV multicast. What must you enable to use SSM?
A. IGMFv3
B. PIM-DM
C. IGMPv2
D. PIM-SM
E. PIM Anycast-RP
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

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Up to the Immediate Present Cisco 640-911 Dumps Exam Cram:

QUESTION 82
Which Cisco data center switch can support a 4-RU physical space requirement and also support FEX, Layer 2 and Layer 3, converged FCoE, and up to ninety-six 40-Gigabit Ethernet ports?
A. Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch
B. Cisco Nexus 5010 Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 1010 Switch
D. Cisco Nexus 7004 Switch
E. Cisco Nexus 6004 Switch

640-911 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 83
Which device can provide FCoE connectivity?
A. Cisco 2901 Integrated Services Router
B. Cisco Nexus 2224TP Fabric Extender
C. Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch
D. Cisco ASA 5510 Firewall
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 84
What are three characteristics of the Ethernet access method CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
A. It allows many stations access to the same wire.
B. It provides segmentation of a LAN.
C. It allows a transmitting station to detect activity on the wire.
D. It allows for detection of collisions on the wire.
E. It provides broadcast capability on the wire.
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 85
Which two MAC addresses are valid? (Choose two.)
A. 00:10:74:C9:CD:C0
B. 0010.CC71.4BF9.AE0E.AE0E
C. 00:10:F9:F9:CC:70:8D:80
D. 0010.E686.3ED4
E. 0010.68F7
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Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 86
What are three important factors when configuring VTP on the Cisco Nexus switching platform? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN 1 must be disabled on the trunk port in order for VTP to work properly.
B. The VDC administrator or network administrator must enable VTP on the device.
C. VTP is enabled on all trunk ports by default.
D. It does not matter which VDC you are working in when you configure VTP on the Cisco Nexus 7000.
E. For a device operating in VTP client mode, the password and domain name must be properly set.
F. In VTP server mode, the device will store VLAN information in bootflash.
G. Per device, VTP configuration is stored in a file named vtp.conf.
H. VTP pruning can be used on Cisco NX-OS devices.
Correct Answer: BFG
QUESTION 87
Which two networking devices operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
640-911 pdf 
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 88
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 89
Which two network topologies are the most popular in switching? (Choose two.)
A. Bus
B. Token passing bus
C. Star
D. Extended star
E. Ring
640-911 vce 
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 90
Which device would you select to partition a network into VLANs?
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 91
At which layer of the OSI model does TCP operate?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: D
Question: 92
The test infrastructure consists of facilities and resources required to conduct testing effectively. Which facility does not belong to the testing infrastructure?
A. test environments
B. test design techniques
C. test tools
D. workplaces
640-911 exam 
Answer: B
Question: 93
See the specification below:
IF A AND (B OR C)
THEN error message
ENDIF
How many logical test cases are distinguished if Semantic Testing with coverage type decision points condition/decision coverage is used?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: A
Question: 94
What can be avoided by consolidating separate checklists into one checklist for assessing a test basis?
A. finding the same test basis defect more often
B. using a particular checklist in both the acceptance and system tests
C. that every project compiles its own checklist
D. duplicating work on identical parts of the test basis during the evaluation
640-911 dumps 
Answer: D
Question: 95.How is an ad’s Clickthrough rate calculated?
A. It’s the number of clicks an ad receives divided by the number of impressions.
B. It’s the number of clicks an ad receives from anywhere in the Google Search or Google Content Network.
C. It’s the total number of clicks an ad receives from the Google Content Network.
D. It’s the number of clicks an ad receives divided by the cost of each click.
Answer: A
Question: 96.Jane is using Google AdWords and she’s receiving a moderate return on investment for budget. Jane would like to use a targeting tool to help her improve her Google AdWords program. Which of the following is a target tool that will help Jane to increase her ROI for her Google AdWords?
A. Conversion Tracking
B. Google Analytics
C. Keyword Tool
D. Traffic Estimator
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Answer: C
Question: 97.You are a Google AdWords consultant for your client and you’re helping them optimize their Google AdWords ads to increase their return on investment. Google recommend three optimization approaches to increase return on investment. Which of the following is NOT an activity that you should do to improve ROI for your client’s ads?
A. Define a clear call-to-action
B. Filter out unqualified clicks
C. Relate ads to their landing pages
D. Include deals and benefits
Answer: D
Question: 98. You are a Google AdWords consultant to a company that sells magic tricks, stage props, and costumes
for theatres. Their website is robust, full of good articles and keywords, and wellorganized. As their new Google AdWords consultant, which one of the following AdWords strategies would you recommend for their different lines of products?
A. Create separate campaigns for product line: one for magic tricks, one for stage props, and one for costumes.
B. Create one campaign for all of their products to maximize ad exposure.
C. Create a campaign based on their products and use placements to target their audience.
D. Create keywords that are specific to purchasing magic tricks, stage props, or costumes.
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Answer: A
Question: 99.You are configuring goals for a large complex website. How many goals can you create for each website profile in Google Analytics?
A. 20
B. 100
C. 50
D. 10
Answer: A
Question: 100. You are a Google AdWords consultant for a client. You’ve created a Google AdWords campaign for your client’s website and you’ve identified 30 keywords for the campaign. You’d like to use a Google tool to help you identify additional keywords through synonyms and different spellings. What Google AdWords tool would you use?

A. Keyword Tool Supercharger
B. Google Analytics
C. Keyword Tool
D. AdWords Editor
640-911 exam 
Answer: C
Question: 101. Doug is a Google AdWords consultant to a client who is using conversion tracking. The client’s goal is to bring web visitors to his website, and to get the clients sign up for a free newsletter. The client does not sell a product or service as a result of the conversion, but only the free newsletter is offered. The client has asked Doug to calculate the return on investment, for the conversions that have been made as a result of the Google AdWords campaign. If the client is not selling a product or service, how can Doug find the return on investment?
A. Doug would need to know the value of the newsletter.
B. Doug needs to know the product cost of the client, to find the return on investment.
C. You can’t track the ROI if there’s nothing for sale as a result of the conversion.
D. Doug needs to know what the final cost of the newsletter would be.
Answer: A
Question: 102.Holly is creating a new custom report in Google Analytics. When Holly creates a new report how many dimensions can she include in the report?
A. Seven
B. One
C. Five
D. Ten
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Answer: C
Question: 103. Ben is reviewing the Google Analytics report for his website. He’s examining the e-commerce reports to determine how well his sales have been in proportion to the traffic he’s received. Ben would like to see the ratio of actual sales from his website in relation to the amount of traffic he’s received. Within the e-commerce section of Google Analytics what report should Ben utilize?
A. Total revenue
B. Visits to Purchase
C. Conversion rate
D. Average order value
Answer: C
Question: 104. You have added “coffee cups” as a keyword to your Google AdWords campaign. Which of the following Google searches would cause your ad to display?
A. Only searches for “coffee cups” as it’s using the exact match options.
B. Only search for “coffee cups” (lower cased) as it’s using the case sensitive options.
C. Any queries that search for “coffee cups” in quotation marks.
D. Any queries that include “coffee cups” in the search, such as yellow coffee cups or coffee cups sale.
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Answer: D
Question: 105.When you configure a new action for Google AdWords conversion tracking, there is a customized field called “other” and four other tracking purpose fields. Which of the following is not a valid tracking purpose for conversion tracking?
A. Download
B. Signup
C. View of a key page
D. Purchase/Sale
Answer: A
Question: 106. You are exploring Google Analytics for a website you have created. In Google Analytics, you would like to configure the dashboard’s graph to look like the one in the figure below. What are the appropriate steps to create this graph measuring total visits and new visits for your website?
A. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose “Compare Two Metrics,” and then choose Visits and % New Visits.
B. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose “Compare Two Metrics,” and then choose Visitors and % New Visitors.
C. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose “Multiple Metrics,” and then choose Visitors and % New Visitors.
D. From the Dashboard, click the Graph Mode drop-down menu, choose “Multiple Metrics,” and then choose Visits and % New Visits.
640-911 vce 
Answer: A
Question: 107. Google determines a quality score to evaluate keyword relevance. The higher the quality score, the better the ad will perform for your site. There are several factors that go into determining your quality score, which include your clickthrough rate, the relevance of your ad text, keyword, and what is the other factor?
A. Domain name
B. History of Google AdWords
C. Negative keywords
D. Landing page
Answer: D
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