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Practice | Cisco CCNP 300-810 Practice Test 1-13 Online

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

300-810 exam questions-q1

Users report that they cannot see the Chat Rooms icon on their Cisco Jabber clients. This feature works without issue in
the lab. An engineer reviews the Cisco IMandP and Jabber configuration and finds that the jabber-config.xml file is
configured properly to support this feature. Which activity should be performed on the IMandP server to resolve this
issue?
A. Activate Cisco XCP Connection Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation.
B. Restart Cisco XCP Message Archiver in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/jabber-windows/118684-probsolchat-00.html


QUESTION 2
When Cisco IM and Presence is configured to use automatic fallback, how long does the Server Recovery Manager
service wait for a failed service/server to remain active before an automatic fallback is initiated?
A. 10 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 1 hour
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-manager-impresence-service/200958-IM-and-Presence-Server-High-Availability.html

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

300-810 exam questions-q3

Users connected to the internal network report a “Cannot communicate with the server” error while trying to log in to
Cisco Jabber using auto service discovery. The Jabber diagnostics and the SRV record configuration are as shown in
the exhibit. The host cucm1.ccnp.cisco.com is correctly resolved by the user desktops with the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager IP address. Why is the user not able to log in?
A. SRV protocol is not set up correctly. It should be _tls instead of _tcp.
B. Marking weight as 0 on the SRV record makes it inactive, so Jabber cannot discover the Cisco Unified CM.
C. The port specified on the SRV record is wrong.
D. The domain ccnp.cisco.com does not exist on the DNS server.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/jabber-client-login-and-login-issues/tap/3143446

QUESTION 4
An engineer is checking the Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco Unity Connection integration and
presses the Message button on a phone to check the voicemail. Which action does Cisco Unified CM take?
A. Cisco Unified CM looks up the voicemail pilot configured to dial.
B. Cisco Unified CM routes the configured hunt pilot to Unity Connection.
C. Cisco Unified CM looks up the hunt pilot configured to dial.
D. Cisco Unified CM sends an AXL query to Unity Connection.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/9_1_1/ccmsys/CUCM_BK_C5565591_00_cucm-system-guide-91/CUCM_BK_C5565591_00_cucm-system-guide-91_chapter_011110.html

QUESTION 5
Which authentication method allows a user to log in to an SSO-enabled Cisco Unified Communications application by
utilizing a Microsoft Windows login, thereby not requiring any credentials to be entered?
A. Smart Card
B. OAuth
C. form-based
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/docs/cisco-unified-communications-single-sign-on-tutorial/#!cisco-unifiedcommunications-single-sign-on-tutorial/learning-more-about-sso

QUESTION 6
After integrating Cisco Unity Express with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, users report that the
system does not respond to their digit presses. Which two configuration snippets resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. dial-peer voice 6800 voip destination-pattern 5… session protocol sipv2 session target ipv4:10.3.6.127 dtmf-relay sipkpml codec g729r8
B. dial-peer voice 6800 voip destination-pattern 5… session protocol sipv2 session target ipv4:10.3.6.127 dtmf-relay sipnotify codec g711ulaw
C. dial-peer voice 6800 voip destination-pattern 5… session protocol sipv2 session target ipv4:10.3.6.127 dtmf-relay rtpnte codec g711ulaw
D. dial-peer voice 6800 voip destination-pattern 5… session protocol sipv2 session target ipv4:10.3.6.127 dtmf-relay sipkpml codec g711ulaw
E. dial-peer voice 6800 voip destination-pattern 5… session protocol sipv2 session target ipv4:10.3.6.127 dtmf-relay sipnotify codec g729r8
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 7
Which Cisco IM and Presence service must be activated and running for IM Presence to successfully integrate with
Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Cisco DHCP Monitor Service
B. Cisco AXL Web Service
C. Self-Provisioning IVR
D. Cisco XCP Authentication Service
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

300-810 exam questions-q8

Which action allows a remote Cisco Jabber user utilizing Mobile and Remote Access to automatically log in to a Cisco
Unity Connection voicemail box via OAuth?
A. Add CUCM under System Settings > Authz Servers in Cisco Expressway-E.
B. Add CUCM under System Settings > Authz Servers in Cisco Expressway-C.
C. Add CUCM under System Settings > Authz Servers in Cisco Unity.
D. Add CUCM under System Settings > Authz Servers in Cisco Unity Connection.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/unified-communications/jabber-mra-unity-voice-mail-integration-issue/tdp/3195653

QUESTION 9
Which CLI command is used to collect traces from the Cisco Presence engine for seven days?
A. file build log cisco_presence_engine 7
B. file build log cisco_presence 168
C. file build log presence_engine 7
D. file build log presence_engine 168
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which type of SRV record provides the location of Cisco Expressway-E?
A. _collab-edge._tls.example.com
B. _cisco-uds._tcp.example.com
C. _cuplogin._tcp.example.com
D. _http._tcp.example.com
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/Windows/9_7/CJAB_BK_C606D8A9_00_cisco-jabber-dns-configuration-guide/CJAB_BK_C606D8A9_00_cisco-jabber-dns-configuration-guide_chapter_010.html


QUESTION 11
Which two Cisco Unity Connection logs are used to troubleshoot issues with Message Waiting Indicators? (Choose
two.)
A. Connection IMAP Server
B. Connection Mailbox Sync
C. Connection Notifier
D. Connection Message Transfer Agent
E. Connection Conversation Manager
Correct Answer: DE
 

QUESTION 12
What prevents toll fraud on voicemail ports?
A. IP address trusted list on the PSTN gateway
B. CSS
C. Block OffNet to OffNet Transfer service parameter
D. FAC
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unity-connection/119337-technote-cuc-00.html


QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. 

300-810 exam questions-q13

Which two steps resolve the “Users with Duplicate User IDs” message? (Choose two.)
A. Rename the directory URI value for one of the users to ensure that there is no duplication.
B. Rename the User ID value for one user if different users on different clusters have the same User ID assigned.
C. Unassign a user from one of the clusters when the same user is assigned to two different clusters.
D. Assign the duplicate user to the secondary Cisco IM and Presence node.
E. Delete the user ID for the duplicate user ID.
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/im_presence/configAdminGuide/10_0_1/CUP0_BK_C318987B_00_config-admin-guide-imp-100/CUP0_BK_C318987B_00_config-admin-guideimp100_chapter_010101.html

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Cisco 300-810 Related Certifications

  • Cisco Certified Network Professional CCNP Certification
  • Cisco Certified Network Professional Collaboration CCNP Collaboration Certification

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QUESTION 1
Which mode will shut down a process?
A. EXEC
B. ADMIN
C. CONFIG
D. ADMIN-CONFIG
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
How are labels exchanged between the AS\\’es in an Option B Layer-3 VPN solution?
A. Via an eBGP multihop connection between the Ingress PE\\’s in each AS.
B. Via an eBGP multihop connection between a Route-Reflector in each AS.
C. There are no labels exchanged between the two AS\\’es.
D. Via an eBGP connection between the directly connected ASBR\\’s, one in each AS.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
How frequently does the WDSYSMON Watcher thread wake up to check counters?
A. every 500 msec
B. every 2 sec
C. every 200 msec
D. every 1 sec
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios_xr_sw/iosxr_r3-8/general/man_pages/crpkg38/ar38wtdg.pdf

QUESTION 4
Which statements are true regarding L3VPN configurations?
A. Prior to configuring a vrf within MP-BGP, the router has to have instantiated the VPNv4 or VPNv6 address-family.
B. On a single PE router, the Route Distinguisher and the Route Targets must be the same.
C. Prior to configuring a neighbor in the VPNv4 address-family, it must already be configured for IPv4-Unicast.
D. The import and export Route Targets must be the same on a PE.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which command is required to permit the retention of BGP Prefixes on a router with VRFs not importing the associated
Route Target?
A. route-policy PASS-ALL in
B. retain route-target all
C. import route-target policy all
D. import route-target all
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
How many times are Layer 3 lookups performed on a packet transiting a CRS or ASR9k router?
A. Three times: in the ingress linecard, the fabric, and the egress linecard
B. Once: in the active RP/RSP
C. Once: in the ingress linecard
D. Twice: in the ingress linecard and again in the egress linecard
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
One of your peers show in the SHOW BGP VPNV4 UNICAST SUMMARY output
What is the cause of this?
A. The label value ranges are mismatched.
B. The peer has no prefixes with a Route-Target that the local router is importing.
C. The BGP prefixes between the routers have not fully converged and will correct itself in time.
D. The peer router is not configured to use the VPNv4 address-family for this connection.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which command removes a user from configuration mode but keeps the user connected to the router?
A. clear line
B. clear session
C. clear commit
D. clear config session
Correct Answer: D
 

QUESTION 9
How do you verify the label(s) used between the ASBRs in Option A Inter-AS L3VPN operation?
A. There are no labels used between the ASBRs
B. Verify the labels assigned by MP-BGP in the SHOW BGP VPNV4 UNICAST
C. Verify the labels assigned by MP-BGP in the SHOW CEF VRF output
D. Verify the labels assigned by LDP in the output of SHOW MPLS FORWARDING
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which command is used to undo a change after issuing a commit command?
A. router# rollback configuration to -1
B. router(config# commit undo
C. router(config)# commit rollback
D. router# rollback configuration last 1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which method or protocol exchanges label information?
A. MP-BGP
B. MOSPF
C. LSR
D. OSPFv3
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What command is used to manually generate a core dump to aid in troubleshooting a process?
A. context
B. dumpcore
C. exception
D. follow
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which protocol is a PE to CE routing protocol?
A. ODR
B. LDP
C. RIPv1
D. eBGP
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which are two features of the Cisco 1100 or 4000 series ISR router product lines? (Choose two.)
A. Unified communications with series build apps for Cisco TDM
B. Advanced LTE backup connectivity offering network resiliency for business continuity
C. Cloud-based hardware management
D. Limited connectivity options
E. 50 to 200 Mbps WAN connections with rich branch services – the same services found at HQ
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2
What is the right approach to achieve secure infrastructure against attack requirements of WAN connectivity?
A. Monitoring application performance
B. Operational simplicity for server infrastructure
C. Simple and agile service deployment model
D. Introduce Advanced Threat Defense solution
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What are two ways that MX security appliances achieve automatic failover and high availability? (Choose two.)
A. Always on (availability groups)
B. Survivable Remote Site Technology (SRST)
C. Warm spare (using VRRP)
D. Redundant gateways (using HSRP)
E. Dual redundant uplink support (multiple ISPs)
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
Which two features of the Cisco catalyst 1100 ISR router deliver a high performance and high-quality experience?
(Choose two.)
A. Mobility express to simplify wireless deployment and operation
B. Application hosting
C. 802.11ac Wi-Fi support
D. WAN and application optimization with WAAS
E. Unified communications with series build apps for Cisco TDM
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which three statements describe Cisco Aironet 1815 Series Access Points? (Choose three.)
A. The most cost-efficient offering designed for SMB in the Cisco Wireless AP portfolio (less than $5/AP/month)
B. An ideal solution for large organizations
C. Offers next-generation 3×3 MIMO with Wave 2 802.11ac
D. Easy to deploy and manage with Cisco Mobility Express
E. Increases total cost of ownership while delivering advanced features like 802.11ac Wave 2
F. Ideal for organizations looking to address growth but have budget restrictions
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 6
What is Meraki\\’s core vision and value proposition?
A. To operate in increasingly mobile, modern networks by delivering preventative protection without compromising
performance
B. To provide a complete cloud-managed IT solution through simplifying powerful technology
C. To lead in the invention and development of the industry\\’s most advanced information technologies
D. To shape the future of the internet by creating opportunities for the investors and ecosystem partners
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two tools allow administrator to maximize the security of their Dashboard management accounts? (Choose two.)
A. Captcha challenge-response tests
B. Local (direct) access only policies
C. Role-based administration
D. Biometric authentication
E. Two-factor authentication
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
Which are two advantages of Umbrella branch package? (Choose two.)
A. No client side configuration required
B. Umbrella connector easy to install in Cisco ISR 4K routers
C. All policy management and reporting at ISR
D. Prevent already-infected devices from connecting to command and control
E. Prevent guest or corporate users from connecting to malicious domains and IP addresses
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
Which are two benefits of Cisco catalyst SMB switches that benefit the customer the most? (Choose two.)
A. Logical upgrade and replacement for the Cisco Catalyst 2960-Plus, at the same price
B. Contains advanced encryption functionality
C. Built for large scale deployments
D. Niche business functionality
E. Cool, quiet, fan-less design ideal for labs, open spaces and the workplace
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two characteristics differentiate the Meraki Dashboard from competing network management interfaces?
(Choose two.)
A. Centralized single pane of glass for access and management
B. Instantaneous access to virtualized applications
C. Built-in live chat for on-demand troubleshooting support
D. Intuitive cloud-based user interface
E. Comprehensive aggregator of multi-vendor networks
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 11
Which three statements regarding Mobility Express are true? (Choose three.)
A. Runs wireless LAN controller function on an access point
B. Ideal for sites with up to 200access points and 2000 clients
C. Provisioning to configure the controller
D. Supported on all Wave 2 access points
E. Supports simple Over-the-Air
F. Supports Workgroup Bridge mode of operation
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 12
Which is a K-12 feature supported in Mobility Express?
A. mDNS Gateway
B. Guest WLAN enhancements
C. Expert View in the WebUI
D. Schedule WLAN
E. CMX Cloud support
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 13
Which two products are considered a part of the Cisco Meraki full stack? (Choose two.)
A. UCS servers
B. MX security appliances
C. MR wireless access points
D. Aironet wireless access points
E. Catalyst switches
Correct Answer: BE

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Cisco 300-070 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which three menu choices will open a window in which you can assign softkey templates? (Choose three.)
A. Device > Phone Configuration
B. Device > Device Settings > Device Profile
C. Service > Service Parameters
D. System > Device Defaults Configuration
E. System > Device Pool Configuration
F. System > Enterprise Parameters
Correct Answer: ABE

 

QUESTION 2
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager menu path is used to access the softkey template configuration
window?
A. Device > Device Settings > Softkey Templates
B. Device Settings > Softkey Templates
C. IP Phone > Template > Softkey
D. Device > IP Phone > Template > Softkey
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which DiffServ PHB classification is recommended by Cisco for interactive video traffic?
A. AF31
B. CS3
C. EF
D. AF41
E. CS4
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
What are two characteristics of a partition? (Choose two.)
A. Assigned to sources of call routing requests
B. Any group of numbers with the same reachability
C. Used in conjunction with calling search spaces to track calls to certain numbers
D. Used in conjunction with calling search spaces to restrict outgoing calls to certain numbers
E. Contains calling search spaces
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 5
An administrator chooses Service > Control Center in the DNA tool. Which service should be enabled?
A. dialed number analyzer server
B. database synchronization
C. directory number alias sync
D. directory number alias lookup
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
When the Cisco IOS router or gateway receives a call setup request, what is the PID value of the default dial peer?
A. ID:3
B. PID:6
C. PID:0
D. PID:4
E. PID:5
F. PID:1
G. PID:2
H. PID:7
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
When implementing a new dial plan, which tool if used to determine if the dial plan theoretically functions as desired?
A. Cisco Prime Collaboration
B. RTMT
C. DNA
D. CDR
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Which statement is true about digit analysis within Cisco Unified Communications Manager when all patterns are in the
same partition?
A. Translation patterns are always matched before route patterns.
B. Transformation patterns are always matched first before any other patterns.
C. SIP route patterns are always matched before any other patterns.
D. Route patterns are always matched before translation patterns.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which two of these are required in order for Cisco Unified Communications Manager to support software conferencing?
(Choose two.)
A. The Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application needs to be activated on the server running the conferencing
service in the cluster.
B. The service parameter for the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application needs to have Run Flag set to True.
C. The software conference bridge resource needs to be configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. The Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application needs to be activated for all servers in the cluster.
E. Under the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application parameters, the conference bridge needs to have Run Flag
set to True.
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 10
On what equipment do you configure Layer 2 to Layer 3 QoS mapping?
A. switch
B. router
C. firewall
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. bridge
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
What is the relationship between a Region and a Location?
A. The Region codec parameter is used between a Region and its configured Locations.
B. The Region setting for a Location sets the number of audio and video calls that Location can support.
C. The codec parameter configured in the Region is only used between Regions and Location bandwidth is only used
between Locations.
D. The Region codec parameter is combined with Location bandwidth when communicating with other Regions.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if
the dialed number was 5324?
A. 5XXX
B. 51XX
C. 513X
D. 5134
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the Exhibit. Which phones can Phone 1 reach?pass4itsure 300-070 exam question q13

A. Phone 2
B. Phone 3
C. Phone 4
D. Phone 5
E. Phone 2 and Phone 3
F. Phone 4 and Phone 5
G. Phone 2, Phone 3 and Phone 4
H. Phone 2, Phone 3, Phone 4 and Phone 5
Correct Answer: H

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QUESTION 1
Which two are benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two )
A. SNMPv3 strong authentication
B. reduced cabling
C. zone port distribution
D. consolidation of LAN and SAN over a common transport
E. native AES-256 encryption of data in flight
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
pass4itsure 200-155 question
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer allocates 12 physical ports to a new VDC. Which command is used to verify VDC port allocation on a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. show vdc port-membership
B. show vdc port-allocation
C. show vdc allocation
D. show vdc membership
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A network design engineer is asked to design a SAN (or a company Which two underlying principles of SAN design should be considered? Choose two.)
A. fault isolation, consolidation while maintaining isolation
B. future growth in LAN infrastructure
C. security management, preferential network security
D. scalability of LAN infrastructure, reduced Ethernet QoS complexity
E. short and long term port density and topology requirements
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
Which two adapters far Cisco UCS B-Series blade servers and C-Series rack servers allow configuration of virtual interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. M71-KR
B. P71E
C. VIC-1225
D. P81E
E. VIC-1280
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
Which option describes the STP requirements for Cisco Fabric Path?
A. MST must be configured an every Cisco Fabric Path VLAN.
B. STP is required only to resolve border link failures
C. RPVST must be configured on every Cisco Fabric Path VLAN
D. STP is not required on Cisco Fabric Path interfaces.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which ports on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects can operate at either 1 Gb/s or 10 Gb/s?
A. Ports 1?
B. None
C. Ports 1?
D. Ports 1?
E. Ports 17?0
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A user is trying to create a new VDC in NX-OS in global configurations mode, but receives an error message What issue prevents the user from creating Virtual Device Contexts?
A. VDCs cannot be created in global configuration mode.
B. The user is not a vdc-admin.
C. The user is not a member of the VDC Power Admin group.
D. The user is not a network-admin.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which option describes Cisco’s virtual device context feature?
A. logical virtualization of a single physical switch
B. logical witches aggregated into a single physical switch
C. logical switches aggregated into multiple physical switches
D. multiple physical switches partitioned to a single virtual switch
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A Cisco UCS administrator wants only the Cisco UCS chassis with four connections between each IOM and the Fabric Interconnect pair to be recognized. Which policy and corresponding action must be configured?
A. Chassis/FEX Discovery Policy, Action: 4-link
B. Chassis/FEX Discovery Policy, Redundancy Action: N+1
C. Rack Management Connection Policy, Action: 4-link
D. Power Policy, Redundancy Action: Grid
E. Rack Server Discovery Policy, Action: 4-link
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which three are the names of configuration tabs that appear in the Navigation Pane of the UCS Manager GUI? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN
B. LAN
C. VSAN
D. Policies
E. Equipment
F. Global
G. Admin
Correct Answer: BEG

QUESTION 11
Which two Cisco data center devices can participate in Fabric Path? (Choose two.)A. Cisco MOS 9500 Series directors
B. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 1000V
E. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
The marketing, research, and business departments of a company each have servers and storage in the SAN fabric connected to a Cisco MDS switch. The storage engineer is asked to ensure that each department’s servers and storage are
isolated from the other departments. Which two steps can the engineer take to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Create VSAN 10, 11, and 12 on the MDS switch.
B. Add marketing devices to VSAN 10, research to VSAN 11, and business to VSAN 12.
C. Create VSAN 10 on the MDS switch.
D. Add marketing, research, and business devices to VSAN 10.
E. Create VSAN 10 and VSAN 11.
F. Add all storage devices to VSAN 10. Add all server devices to VSAN 11.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
Which two modes of setup are offered on the initial setup script on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. Restore
B. Setup
C. Console
D. Serial
E. Management 0
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Which two Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VWware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose two )
A. access control lists
B. QoS marking
C. Network vMotion
D. port state migration
E. DV Port Groups
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is a virtual technology that helps create multiple route tables that function on the same physical router?
A. VSS
B. vPC
C. VRF
D. VSAN
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Layer 3 networks can be logically separated by which technology?
A. bridge domain
B. VRF
C. VLAN
D. tenant
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
What are two advantages to running Fabric Path in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose two.)
A. provides multi chassis Ether Channel capabilities
B. allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized
C. has L2 multipath forwarding capacities
D. uses B02 1 q trunks to ensure VLANs are propagated through the topology
E. uses TTL field to provide loop mitigation
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 18
A network engineer wants to configure switch ports on Cisco Nexus 2000 and 2200 Fabric Extender switches that are connected to a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch. Which two options allow this configuration? (Choose two)
A. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
B. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5600 using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports.
C. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
D. Connect to each at the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using a console cable then configure the FEX switch ports.
E. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5500 switch using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 19
What are two main benefits of standardized open API’s in a multi-vendor environment? (Choose two)
A. automation
B. clustering
C. interoperability
D. centralized management
E. configuration management
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 20
Which two options are advantages of a spine and leaf architecture? (Choose two )
A. robust multipathing
B. traffic that is optimized for east-west communication
C. star topology
D. traffic that is optimized for north-south communication
E. exponential scalability
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 21
What is the primary benefit of Cisco Global Load Balancing Solution?
A. implements business continuity and disaster recovery by optimizing the DNS infrastructure
B. encrypts data communication
C. accelerates content delivery through a designated content cache engine
D. adds resiliency to the core layer of a data center
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which Cisco Nexus 1000V component is the equivalent of a line card on a standard Cisco Nexus switch?
A. Virtual Ethernet Module
B. Virtual Supervisor Module
C. Virtual Service BladeD. Virtual Security Gateway
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which tool organizes workflows to automate simple and complex actions on infrastructure?
A. Cisco UCS Manager
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco DCNM
D. Cisco UCS server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which three are the three primary methods to configure Cisco UCS B-Series systems? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP
B. XML API
C. UCS Manager GUI
D. IPMI
E. UCS Manager CLI
F. CIM-XML
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 25
Which management platform reduces server provisioning tome by automatically performing an inventory and deep discovery when new devices are attached?
A. UCS Manager
B. UCS Server
C. CDP Manager
D. Enterprise Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
A customer deployed Cisco B200 blades with service profiles. The customer experiences an outage on one of the Cisco B200 blades that will be replaced with a spare blade already in inventory. Which two steps should the customer take to
replace the failed blade? (Choose two.)
A. Disassociate the service profile from the failed blade.
B. Associate the service profile to the spare blade.
C. Create a new service profile for the spare blade.
D. Delete the service profile from the spare blade.
E. Create a new service profile template for the failed blade.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 27
Which feature monitors state transitions of components and processes in Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. finite state machine
B. state monitor
C. state manager
D. discovery
E. logical state arbiter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
A network engineer is migrating the server farm from 1 Gb/s Ethernet connectivity la 10 Gb/s Ethernet connectivity What two Cisco Nexus Fabric Extenders support 10 Gb/s server connectivity? (Choose two.)
A. Nexus 2148T
B. Nexus 2232PP
C. Nexus 2248TP
D. Nexus 2248PQ
E. Nexus 2224TP
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 29
Which statements are valid for a local SPAN configuration’? (Choose two.)
A. Source and destination interface must be on the same host
B. Source and destination interfaces can be on different hosts
C. Destination vEthernet interface can be on a different VLAN than the source
D. Destination interface can be a physical port
E. Destination interface cannot be a physical port
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
When using a Cisco UCS Director, a typical workflow consists of which two terms? (Choose Two )
A. Resource Manager
B. Workflow Designer
C. Scheduler
D. Activity Planner
E. Predefined Tasks
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 31
A UCS administrator has been tasked with creating a new server profile Which two pools can be used to assign Layer 2 interface information? (Choose two)
A. Server
B. Mac Address
C. IP address
D. UUD
E. WWN
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 32
An engineer the UCS Fabric interconnects for network connectivity to the data center LAN and SAN. Which two ports types need to be configured to allow traffic to Bow properly? (Choose two)
A. Ethernet uplink
B. server uplink
C. appliance
D. Fibre Channel uplink
E. Fibre Channel storage
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 33
Which vPC connection creates the illusion of a single control plane?
A. vPC keepalive link
B. vPC control Iink
C. vPC management link
D. vPC peer link
E. vPC overlay link
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
Which component of Cisco UCS B-Series is also referred to as a FEX?
A. UCS 5108
B. UCS 2104XP
C. UCS 6248UP
D. UCS 6120
E. UCS MK72-KR
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which two components are part of the Cisco Unified Computing System 2104 I/O Module? (Choose two)
A. multiplexer
B. chassis management console
C. finite state machine
D. data management engine
E. chassis management controller
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 36
Which feature monitors state transitions of components and processes in Cisco Unified Computing System?
A. logical state arbiter
B. discovery
C. finite state machine
D. state monitor
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 37
Drag the WAAS component feature on the left to the corresponding function on the right
pass4itsure 200-155 question

QUESTION 38
Drag the Network virtualization technology on the left to the correct definition on the right.

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QUESTION 1
Which two options are limitations of NetFlow Version 5? (Choose two.)
A. no support for IPv6, Layer 2, or MPLS fields
B. fixed field specifications
C. excessive network utilization
D. analyzes all packets on the interface
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Which two actions are required before FIPS is configured in Cisco MDS? (Choose two.)
A. Passwords must be a minimum of 10 characters in length.
B. SNMP v2 or v3 must be enabled.
C. Remote authentication must occur utilizing RADIUS/TACACS+.
D. Disable VRRP.
E. Delete all SSH server RSA key pairs.
F. Delete all IKE policies utilizing MD5 or DES for encryption.
G. Enable the FC-FIPS feature.
H. Disable SSH.
Correct Answer: DF
Explanation

QUESTION 3
If you are using NAT in your data center, which load balancing would you be likely to use within your GLBP configuration?
A. none
B. round-robin
C. host dependent
D. weighted
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which parameter is configurable when setting up logging on the Connectivity Management Processor?
A. the number of CMP messages to save in a single log file
B. the number of times the log can roll over
C. the directory to save the log file to
D. the severity threshold of the messages to log
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco NX-OS feature allows transparent Layer 2 extension between sites?
A. FabricPath
B. ETV
C. OTV
D. vPC
E. LISP
F. TrustSec
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which three options of encryption are supported in PIM hello messages? (Choose three.)
A. cleartext
B. DES-SHA1
C. DES-CBC3-SHA
D. Cisco Type 7
E. RC4-SHA
F. 3DES
Correct Answer: ADF
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Which task must be done before a zone set takes effect?
A. Add a member to the zone.
B. Enter the exit config t command.
C. Enter the copy running-config startup-config command.
D. Enter the zoneset activate name <zone-name> vsan <vsan-#> command.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-165 question
What is the maximum IPv6 unicast route memory allocated?
A. 4 MB
B. 8 MB
C. 1024 MB
D. 1 GB
E. 5 MB
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-165 question
Which two outcomes occur when the state is Other? (Choose two.)
A. The VSAN on each end of the connection does not match.
B. The interface is not an E Port.
C. The interface is not an F Port.
D. The interface is administratively shut down.
E. Cisco Fabric Services is not enabled.
F. NPIV should be disabled.
G. The interface is functioning, but may have errors.
H. Encryption is not enabled.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which command ensures that a learned MAC address is stored within NVRAM?
A. switchport port-security mac-address address [vlan vlan-ID]
B. switchport port-security
C. switchport port-security mac-address sticky
D. feature port-security
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 11
In Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches, which three statements about SPAN are true? (Choose three.)
A. SPAN source ports can be the in-band interface to the supervisor engine control plane of the switch.
B. SPAN monitor ports can be routed ports.
C. SPAN destination ports can be configured in only one SPAN session at a time.
D. The Cisco Nexus 7000 supports virtual SPAN feature.
E. SPAN destination port actively participates in spanning-tree instance.
F. SPAN destinations cannot be an RSPAN VLAN.
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Which four statements about reserved VLANs in Cisco NX-OS are true? (Choose four.)
A. The range of reserved VLANs cannot be changed.
B. The number of reserved VLANs is 96.
C. A change to the range of reserved VLANs can be performed only in the VDC default.
D. A write-erase procedure restores the default reserved VLAN range.
E. The number of reserved VLANs is 128.
F. A reload is needed for changes to take place.
G. The configuration must be saved for changes to take place.
Correct Answer: CEFG
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Which three options are capabilities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch? (Choose three.)
A. All interface and supervisor modules are accessible from the front.
B. All interface and supervisor modules are accessible from the rear.
C. single power supply only
D. multiple power supply option for redundancy
E. up to 180.7 Tbps forwarding capacity with Fabric-2 modules with 10-slot switches
F. up to 18.7 Tbps forwarding capacity with Fabric-2 modules with 18-slot switches
Correct Answer: ADF
Explanation

QUESTION 14
Which command specifies a load-balancing method based on the MAC address of a host where the same forwarder is always used for a particular host while the number of GLBP group members remains unchanged?
A. load-balancing host-dependent
B. load-balancing mac-pinning
C. load-balancing round-robin
D. load-balancing weighted
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 15
In OTV, how are the VLANs split when a site has two edge devices?
A. They are configured manually by user.
B. They are split in half among each edge device.
C. They are split as odd and even VLAN IDs on each edge device.
D. It is not possible to have two edge devices in same site.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which protocol is responsible for the discovery of FCoE capabilities on a remote switch?
A. DCE
B. DCBx
C. CDP
D. LLDP
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Data Center Bridging Capabilities Exchange Protocol (DCBX): a discovery and capability exchange protocol that is used for conveying capabilities and configuration of the above features between neighbors to ensure consistent configuration
across the network. This protocol leverages functionality provided by IEEE 802.1AB (LLDP). It is actually included in the 802.1az standard.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Data_center_bridging

QUESTION 17
Which command enables NPIV on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches and Cisco MDS switches?
A. switch(config)# npiv enable
B. switch(config)# npivon
C. switch(config)# feature npiv
D. switch(config)# npiv proxy
E. switch(config)# np proxy-enable
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This command enables NPIV for all VSANs on the switch.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx- os/san_switching/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX- OS_SAN_Switching_Configuration_Guide/Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX-
OS_SAN_Switching_Configuration_Guide_chapter2.html

QUESTION 18
Which statement about core-edge SAN topology is true?
A. Converged FCoE links connect the core and edge MDS switches.
B. The SAN core connects to the network aggregation layer.
C. Separate links with the same I/O are used for SAN and LAN traffic.
D. Storage devices are accessed via FCoE over the LAN network.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Aggregation layer of the data center provides connectivity for the Access layer switches in the server farm, an aggregates them into a smaller number of interfaces to be connected into the Core layer. In most data center environments,
the Aggregation layer is the transition point between the purely Layer 3 routed Core layer, and the Layer 2-switched Access layer. 802.1Q trunks extend the server farm VLANs between Access and Aggregation layers. The Aggregation layer
also provides a common connection point to insert services into the data flows between clients and servers, or between tiers of servers in a multi-tier application.

QUESTION 19
Which configuration is specific to Cisco TelePresence System seed devices?
A. radius server radius-server-name
B. aaa session-id common
C. radius-server vsa send authentication
D. aaa new-model
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which two statements about SAN zoning on Cisco Nexus switches are true? (Choose two.)
A. Unlike configured zones, default zone information is not distributed to the other switches in the fabric.
B. Traffic can either be permitted or denied among members of the default zone. This information is not distributed to all switches. It must be configured in each switch.
C. The settings for default zone configurations cannot be changed.
D. To activate a zone set, you must copy the running configuration to the startup configuration after the zone set is configured.
E. Soft zoning restrictions will not prevent a source device from accessing a device outside its zone, if the source knows the Fibre Channel ID of the destination.
F. Hard zoning is enforced by the hardware on each FLOGI sent by an N Port.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Each member of a fabric (in effect a device attached to an Nx port) can belong to any zone. If a member is not part of any active zone, it is considered to be part of the default zone. Therefore, if no zone set is active in the fabric, all devices
are considered to be in the default zone. Even though a member can belong to multiple zones, a member that is part of the default zone cannot be part of any other zone. The switch determines whether a port is a member of the default zone
when the attached port comes up. Unlike configured zones, default zone information is not distributed to the other switches in the fabric Traffic can either be permitted or denied among members of the default zone. This information is not
distributed to all switches; it must be configured in each switch.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_2/configuration/g uides/fabric/DCNM-SAN/fm_fabric/zone.html

QUESTION 21
Which statement describes what happens if a new EPLD version is released with a new Cisco NX-OS version for a Cisco Nexus switch, but these EPLDs are not upgraded at the same time that NX-OS is upgraded?
A. Any new hardware or software feature that depends on the updated EPLD image is disabled until upgraded.
B. Modules that use an updated EPLD image remain offline until the EPLD is upgraded.
C. The EPLD image version mismatch is detected by the supervisor, which automatically initiates an upgrade.
D. The Cisco NX-OS upgrade fails as a result of the mismatch between EPLDs and NX-OS versions.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Which command is used to associate EID-to-RLOC for a LISP site?
A. #feature lisp
B. #ipv6 lisp itr
C. #ip lisp database-mapping
D. #ip lisp itr map-resolver
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 23
Which feature must be enabled for Cisco TrustSec FC Link Encryption to work on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch?
A. crypto IKE
B. port security
C. LDAP
D. FC-SP
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 24
Which three attributes encompass a local user account on a Cisco NX-OS device? (Choose three.)
A. expiration date
B. cisco-avpair
C. password
D. AAA server address
E. user roles
F. bind user DN
G. user privileges
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation

QUESTION 25
Which command activates the port security database for VSAN 1 regardless of conflicts?
A. port-security commit vsan 1
B. no port-security auto-learn vsan 1
C. port-security activate vsan 1 force
D. port-security database vsan 1Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 26
Which three options are capabilities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Supervisor Module? (Choose three.)
A. hardware forwarding on the supervisor module
B. fully decoupled control plane and data plane with no forwarding on the supervisor module
C. Sup2 requires Cisco NX-OS 5.1 or later.
D. Sup2 requires Cisco NX-OS 6.1 or later.
E. Sup2E supports 8+1 VDC with the N7K-VDC1K9 license per chassis.
F. Sup2 supports 8+1 VDCs with the N7K-VDC1K9 license per chassis.
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-165 question
Which two commands are missing from this configuration that an admin needs to integrate a Cisco Nexus 5000 switch with vCenter to leverage VM-FEX? (Choose two.)
A. vmware dvs datacenter-name
B. vmware dvs
C. remote ip address port 80 vrf
D. connection-type vmware
E. installation-method auto
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 28
Which three parameters can be set when configuring a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch to use a TACACS+ server? (Choose three.)
A. group-size
B. deadtime
C. timeout
D. keep-alive
E. retransmit
Correct Answer: BCE
Explanation

QUESTION 29
Which item represents the process that allows FCoE multihop using T11 standard FC-BB- 5?
A. distributed FCF
B. FIP proxy
C. N Port proxy
D. FIP snooping
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
FIP snooping is used in multi-hop FCoE environments. FIP snooping is a frame inspection method that can be used by FIP snooping capable DCB devices to monitor FIP frames and apply policies based on the information in those frames.
This allows for:
Enhanced FCoE security (Prevents FCoE MAC spoofing.) Creates FC point-to-point links within the Ethernet LAN Allows auto-configuration of ACLs based on name server information read in the FIP frames
Reference: http://www.definethecloud.net/fcoe-initialization-protocol-fip-deep-dive/

QUESTION 30
Which two elements must be configured correctly for Cisco TrustSec Fibre Channel Link Encryption to work on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch? (Choose two.)
A. AES-GMAC
B. key
C. salt
D. AAA
E. group
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 31
Which FCoE component is responsible for the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of Fibre Channel frames in Ethernet?
A. distributed FCF
B. FCoE node
C. FCoE logical endpoint
D. Fibre Channel forwarder
E. FCoE forwarder
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The FCoE Logical Endpoint (FCoE_LEP) is responsible for the encapsulation and deencapsulation functions of the FCoE traffic. FCoE_LEP has the standard Fibre Channel layers, starting with FC-2 and continuing up the Fibre Channel
Protocol stack.
Reference: https://www.safaribooksonline.com/library/view/ccna-data- center/9780133860429/ch11lev3sec5.html

QUESTION 32
Which example creates an Embedded Event Manager policy allowing the CLI command to execute, and triggers an SNMP notification when a user enters configuration mode? A)
pass4itsure 300-165 question
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 33
When implementing Cisco Adapter FEX, which setting on the virtual interface card on the Cisco UCS C-Series Server must be configured?
A. uplink failover
B. PXE boot
C. network interface virtualization
D. VM-FEX
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 34
Which statement about the MPLS feature set is true?
A. It is not license dependent.
B. It can be installed from any VDC.
C. It can be enabled only in the default VDC.
D. It must be installed from the default VDC.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 35
When creating a VDC on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch, which command in the VDC designates that only 10 port channels can be created in that VDC?
A. allocate resource port-channel 10
B. limit-resource port-channel minimum 0 maximum 10
C. allow-resource port-channel maximum 10
D. port-channel maximum 10
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 36
Which option shows how to configure an ERSPAN Type III source session in Cisco NX-OS 6.2?
pass4itsure 300-165 question
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 37
Which two advantages does FabricPath have over Spanning Tree in implementing a loop- free network topology design? (Choose two.)
A. Blocked links can be brought in to service if active links fail.
B. Convergence times are faster.C. Multipath forwarding is supported for unicast and multicast Layer 2 and Layer 3 traffic.
D. Unknown unicast addresses are flooded in through the originating port.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 38
Between which two types of ports does FIP establish Fibre Channel virtual links? (Choose two.)
A. VE Ports and VE Ports
B. N Ports and F Ports
C. VN Ports and VF Ports
D. VP Ports and VE Ports
E. VE Ports and VF Ports
F. E Ports and E Ports
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
FIP aims to establish virtual FC links between VN_Ports and VF_Ports (ENode to FCF), as well as between pairs of VE_Ports (FCF to FCF), since these are the only legal combinations supported by native Fibre Channel fabrics. Standards-
compliant implementations are not required to support both forms of virtual FC links, and Cisco has decided to focus initially on implementing FIP only between ENodes and FCFs. FCF-to- FCF connectivity is considered a strategic direction
for end-to-end FCoE deployments, but the short-term urgency is for FCoE adoption between CNAs and the Fibre Channel fabric perimeter, where unified fabric can offer the greatest capital expenditure (CapEx) savings today.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-series- switches/white_paper_c11-560403.html

QUESTION 39
Which two functions are enabled when you set up vPC+ at the FabricPath edge? (Choose two.)
A. the ability to attach Cisco Fabric Extenders in FEX active/active mode
B. the ability to stop all Layer 3 egress traffic
C. the ability to attach servers to edge switches with port-channel teaming
D. the ability to attach additional Classic Ethernet switches in vPC+ mode
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 40
Which feature allows routing protocols to remain in the data path during a supervisor failover?
A. Cisco Nonstop Forwarding
B. Cisco Stateful Switchover
C. Cisco Express Forwarding
D. Cisco Route Processor Redundancy
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 41
Which two RFCs are supported by Cisco NX-OS devices for OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
A. RFC 2238
B. RFC 1918
C. RFC 1583
D. RFC 2453
E. RFC 2740
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 42
Which three options are CallHome predefined destination profiles that are supported on Cisco NX-OS? (Choose three.)
A. CiscoTAC-1
B. full-text-destination
C. pager-xml-destination
D. short-text-destination
E. xml-text-destination
F. pager-json-destination
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation

QUESTION 43
Which two statements about SAN zoning on Cisco Nexus switches are true? (Choose two.)
A. Zoning is enforced by examining the destination ID field.
B. Devices can only belong to one zone.
C. Only one zone set can be activated at any time.
D. A zone can only be a member one zone set.
E. Zoning must be administered from the primary SAN switch in the fabric.
F. Zone configuration changes are nondisruptive.
Correct Answer: CF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A zone set can be activated or deactivated as a single entity across all switches in the fabric. Only one zone set can be activated at any time. If zoning is not activated, all devices are members of the default zone. If zoning is activated, any
device that is not in an active zone (a zone that is part of an active zone set) is a member of the default zone. Zoning can be administered from any switch in the fabric. When you activate a zone (from any switch), all switches in the fabric
receive the active zone set. Additionally, full zone sets are distributed to all switches in the fabric, if this feature is enabled in the source switch.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/storage/san_switches/mds9000/sw/san- os/quick/guide/qcg_zones.html

QUESTION 44
How does addition of bandwidth between spine and leaf switches in a FabricPath architecture get utilized?
A. Links between the same set of switches are automatically added to a port channel.
B. Adding additional bandwidth is handled dynamically using the 802.1AX protocol.
C. Traffic is load shared automatically across the available paths to the destination.
D. FabricPath uses hardware bonding of physical interfaces to form higher-speed links.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 45
What configuration is required when implementing FCoE?
A. disable LAN traffic on the interface
B. configure PortFast on the access port
C. permit all VLANs on the interface
D. permit all VSANs on the interface
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
DCBX allows the switch to send a LAN Logical Link Status (LLS) message to a directly- connected CNA. Enter the shutdown lan command to send an LLS-Down message to the CNA. This command causes all VLANs on the interface that
are not enabled for FCoE to be brought down. If a VLAN on the interface is enabled for FCoE, it continues to carry SAN traffic without any interruption.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/fcoe/b_Cisco_Ne xus_5000_Series_NX-OS_Fibre_Channel_over_Ethernet_Configuration_Guide_/Cisco_Nexus_5000_Series_NX- OS_Fibre_Channel_over_Ethernet_Configuration_Guide__chapter3.html

QUESTION 46
Which standard has Cisco used to implement VM-FEX?
A. IEEE 802.1BR
B. IEEE 802.1Qbb
C. IEEE 802.1Qaz
D. IEEE 802.1p
E. IEEE 802.1x
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 47
Which two reasons explain why a server on VLAN 10 is unable to join a multicast stream that originates on VLAN 20? (Choose two.)
A. IGMP snooping and mrouter are not enabled on VLAN 10.
B. VLAN 20 has no IGMP snooping querier defined and VLAN 10 has no mrouter.
C. The mrouter on VLAN 20 does not see the PIM join.
D. The mrouter must be on VLAN 10 and VLAN 20.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
IGMP snooping is a mechanism to constrain multicast traffic to only the ports that have receivers attached. The mechanism adds efficiency because it enables a Layer 2 switch to selectively send out multicast packets on only the ports that
need them. Without IGMP snooping, the switch floods the packets on every port. The switch “listens” for the exchange of IGMP messages by the router and the end hosts. In this way, the switch builds an IGMP snooping table that has a list of
all the ports that have requested a particular multicast group.
The mrouter port is simply the port from the switch point of view that connects to a multicast router. The presence of at least one mrouter port is absolutely essential for the IGMP snooping operation to work across switches. All Catalyst
platforms have the ability to dynamically learn about the mrouter port. The switches passively listen to either the Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) hellos or the IGMP query messages that a multicast router sends out periodically.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst-6500-series- switches/68131-cat-multicast-prob.html

QUESTION 48
During the design of a new Cisco Data Center Network, a customer asked when VM-FEX would be used with Cisco Nexus 1000V Switch. Which scenario is most appropriate?
A. when a host must utilize a vSwitch and a distributed vSwitch
B. when using Non-UCS Servers to provide virtualization services with Nexus FEX modules
C. They are mutually exclusive of each other.
D. when a Cisco UCS C-Series server requires Cisco Nexus 1000V Switch to provide VM connectivity
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 49
Drag the description on the left to the most appropriate FCoE protocol or feature on the right.
pass4itsure 300-165 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ENODES: During FLOGI or FDISC, the ENode advertises the addressing modes it supports. If the FC switch supports an addressing mode that the ENode uses, the virtual link can be established, and the devices can communicate.
FIP: FIP is the set of control plane functions that enable discovery of FCoE-capable devices across FCoE passthrough switches and establishment of legal combinations of virtual links.
FCF: FCoE Initialization Protocol (FIP) is the FCoE control protocol responsible for establishing and maintaining Fibre Channel virtual links between pairs of FCoE devices (ENodes or FCFs). During the virtual link establishment phase, FIP
first discovers FCoE VLANs and remote virtual FC interfaces; then it performs virtual link initialization functions (fabric login [FLOGI] and fabric discovery [FDISC], or exchange link parameters [ELP]) similar to their native Fibre Channel
equivalents. After the virtual link is established, Fibre Channel payloads can be exchanged on the virtual link, and FIP remains in the background to perform virtual link maintenance functions; it continuously verifies reachability between the
two virtual FC interfaces on the Ethernet network, and it offers primitives to delete the virtual link in response to administrative actions to that effect. This document does not describe the virtual link maintenance functions of FIP.

QUESTION 50
VSANs and SAN Zoning have similar security goals, but also have different qualities. Drag the characteristic on the left to the appropriate column heading (VSAN or Zoning) on the right.
pass4itsure 300-165 question
pass4itsure 300-165 question
Explanation
Explanation/Reference

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QUESTION 1
Which component is required to run FCoE?
A. converged network adapter
B. iSCSI gateway
C. host bus adapter
D. Fibre Channel adapter
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Computers can connect to FCoE with converged network adapters (CNAs), which contain
both Fibre Channel host bus adapter (HBA) and Ethernet Network Interface Card (NIC) functionality on the
same adapter card. CNAs have one or more physical Ethernet ports. FCoE encapsulation can be done in
software with a conventional Ethernet network interface card, however FCoE CNAs offload (from the CPU)
the low level frame processing and SCSI protocol functions traditionally performed by Fibre Channel host
bus adapters.

QUESTION 2
You have a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series switch. What is the default load-balancing hash mechanism for
traffic on FCoE port channels?
A. the source MAC address
B. the source IP address and the destination IP address
C. the source MAC address and the destination MAC address
D. the source TCP or UDP port and the destination TCP or UDP port
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: On Nexus 5500 the default load balancing mechanism on the LACP port- channel for FCoE
traffic is “source-destination”. In this default state, all the FCoE traffic takes the same link in the port-
channel when the Nexus 5500 forwards frames over FCoE VE ports. In order to enable all links to be used
in the port-channel for FCoE traffic, enter the port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest-port
command to configure Nexus 5500 “port-channel load balancing” to “source-dest-port”. With this
configuration “source- destination-oxid” load balancing is used for FCoE traffic.

QUESTION 3
You must configure resiliency for Fibre Channel uplink ports on Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects. Which
feature should you configure?
A. an appliance port
B. vPC
C. a port channel
D. a unified storage port
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 4
What is the most common design requirement when creating a data center solution?
A. high availability with disaster recovery
B. multicore CPU serversC. traffic inspection for inbound traffic
D. virtualization of network resources
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
Which two actions must be performed when you configure Cisco VN-Link in hardware? (Choose two.)
A. Create a distributed virtual switch in Cisco UCS Manager.
B. Add an ESX host to the distributed virtual switch in Cisco UCS Manager.
C. Create a port profile and profile clients in Cisco UCS Manager.
D. Create a standard switch on an ESXi host and map the network adapters to the switch.
E. Create a distributed virtual switch under the datacenter folder in VMware vCenter.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 6
Which two platforms support the FCoE protocol? (Choose two)
A. Cisco Nexus 2332TQ Series
B. Cisco MDS 9148S Series
C. Cisco Nexus 7010 Series
D. Cisco MDS 9222i Series
E. Cisco Nexus 2248TP Series
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Spanning Tree Protocol runs at which functional layer of the data center?
A. core layer
B. access layer
C. application layer
D. network layer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 8
You deploy new server infrastructure by using a Cisco UCS platform. Winch two design options can you
use to increase the redundancy of the new compute solution’ (Choose two.)
A. a 10-Gb uplink port
B. a pin vNic in the server profile to a specific Fabric Interconnect node that has failover disabled
C. an uplink port in a port channel configuration
D. static pinning at the server ports
E. more than one server port to connect the Cisco UCS B-Series blade IOM
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Which two options are supported on Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects that use native Fibre Channel
connectivity? (Choose two)
A. iSCSI
B. NFS
C. DAS
D. SAN
E. iFCP
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which technology provides the ability to use all links in a LAN topology by providing an active-active path
to the upstream switch?
A. STP
B. vPC
C. PVST+
D. RSTP
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 11
When you configure FCIP, which two types of acceleration can you enable to maximize WAN link
utilization? (Choose two)
A. SCSI write
B. link
C. SCSI tape
D. WAN
E. IP
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps5989/products_configuration_guide_chapter09186
a0080664e20.html

QUESTION 12
What are two benefits of a service insertion that is mediated through the Cisco APIC instead of the
classical Ethernet model? (Choose two.)
A. provides Layer 5 service insertion capability
B. provides Layer 7 service insertion capability
C. provides policies that can manage the network and service appliances
D. can automate the service insertion
E. provides built-in services, such as Cisco ACE Web Application Firewall and ADC
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 13
What are common switching protocols that are used in the data center? (Choose two.)
A. Token Ring
B. FDDI
C. Ethernet
D. MPLS
E. Frame Relay
F. APPN/APPI
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 14
You plan to use vPC+ in a FabricPath topology. What are two characteristics of a vPC+ switch ID?
(Choose two.)
A. must he set to 255
B. must be set manually
C. can be reused in the FabricPath topology
D. must be the same on each vPC+ peer
E. must be different on each vPC+ peer
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 15
Which option can be used to provide a nonproprietary method of load balancing and redundancy between
the access and aggregation layers in the data canter?
A. vPC
B. PAgP
C. LACP
D. host vPC
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 16
You must use one logical uplink for Fibre Channel traffic and Ethernet traffic on a Cisco UCS system.
Which type of port should you use to accomplish this task?
A. FCoE storage
B. server
C. FCoE uplink
D. uplink
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Server and Uplink Ports on the Fabric Interconnect Each fabric interconnect has a set of ports
in a fixed port module that you can configure as either server ports or uplink Ethernet ports. These ports
are not reserved. They cannot be used by a Cisco UCS instance until you configure them. You can addexpansion modules to increase the number of uplink ports on the fabric interconnect or to add uplink Fibre
Channel ports to the fabric interconnect.
You need to create LAN pin groups and SAN pin groups to pin traffic from servers to an uplink port. Each
fabric interconnect can include the following types of ports:
Server Ports
Server ports handle data traffic between the fabric interconnect and the adapter cards on the servers. You
can only configure server ports on the fixed port module. Expansion modules do not include server ports.
Uplink Ethernet Ports
Uplink Ethernet ports handle Ethernet traffic between the fabric interconnect and the next layer of the
network. All network-bound Ethernet traffic is pinned to one of these ports. By default, Ethernet ports are
unconfigured. However, you can configure them to function in the following ways:
Server
Uplink
FCoE
Appliance
You can configure uplink Ethernet ports on either the fixed module or an expansion module.
Uplink Fibre Channel Ports
Uplink Fibre Channel ports handle FCoE traffic between the fabric interconnect and the next layer of the
network. All network-bound FCoE traffic is pinned to one of these ports. By default, Fibre Channel ports
are uplink. However, you can configure them to function as Fibre Channel storage ports. This is useful in
cases where a Cisco UCS requires a connection to a Direct-Attached Storage (DAS) device. You can only
configure uplink Fibre Channel ports on an expansion module. The fixed module does not include uplink
Fibre Channel ports.

QUESTION 17
You use Cisco UCS Central to manage Cisco UCS. Which statement accurately describes how local and
global policies are applied?
A. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS
Director.
B. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Manager, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco
UCS Central.
C. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Director, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco
UCS Central.
D. A local policy is applied by using Cisco UCS Central, and a global policy is applied by using Cisco UCS
Manager.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Which technology uses TCP as a block I/O transport?
A. iSCSI
B. NFS v4
C. CIFS
D. FCoE
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 19
Which statement accurately describes VSAN-based QoS when the same flow is present in two class maps
that are associated to a policy map?
A. The highest QoS value is used.
B. The lowest QoS value is used.
C. The QoS value ot the class map that is attached first takes effect.D. The QoS value ot the class map that is attached last takes effect.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps5989/products_configuration_guide_chapter09186
a0080663141.html

QUESTION 20
A customer is interested in endpoint security at the access layer, which option is Cisco recommended?
A. ACLs
B. DAI
C. TrustSec
D. stateful inspection
E. UDLD
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 21
You plan to extend the Layer 2 domain by using OTV in multicast mode What must you consider?
A. The same site ID must be used on all of the edge devices on all of the sites.
B. The join interface must run IGMPv3
C. The OTV site VLAN must be extended over the overlay.
D. The site OTV VLAN must be the same on all of the AED routers on all of the sites.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Which components share a physical interface in a VDC deployment?
A. two VDCs for Ethernet traffic
B. storage VDC for FCoE traffic and a VDC for Ethernet traffic
C. two storage VDCs for FCoE traffic
D. interface VLAN and a VDC
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 23
LISP provides which capability?
A. host connectivity redundancy
B. physical host mobility
C. VM mobility
D. VXLAN mobility
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 24
Refer to the Exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-160 question
You need to allocate all interfaces on the same port ASIC to the same VDC. Which ports share an ASIC?
A. ports 1-12
B. ports 9-17
C. ports 9-13
D. ports 1-17
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 25
You need to ensure that VXLAN connectivity can survive a chassis failure in a vPC configuration using
Cisco Nexus 9300 Series switches. Which address type should be bound to the VLAN NVE tunnel for
VTEP to ensure resiliency?
A. anycast
B. unicast
C. multicast
D. broadcastCorrect Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 26
What is the default CoS value for FCoE packets on a storage VDC?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
E. 7
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 27
Which statement regarding network management for the data center is true?
A. Flexible NetFlow can be used to provide enhanced network anomaly and security detection.
B. The Network Analysis Module is best deployed in the core for highest visibility.
C. NetFlow Support is available on most IOS and Nexus products, excluding the Nexus 1000v
D. NetFlow Data Export is best positioned on the Nexus 5500 at the access or aggregation layer.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 28
Which use case requires a design that contains multiple VRF instances in a VDC?
A. Provide VRF-aware services to all Layer 3 interfaces.
B. Provide a route policy for incoming packets.
C. Provide routing updates between Layer 3 interfaces
D. Provide Layer 3 isolation within a VDC
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-160 question
Which two descriptions of the purpose of the L1-L2 links between FI A and FI B are true? (Choose two)
A. synchronizes the configuration information
B. provides a vPC peer link between the fabric interconnects.
C. allows each fabric interconnect to monitor the status of the other fabric interconnect continuously.
D. provides an alternate data path if an upstream link fails.
E. migrates VIFs from FI A to FI B if FI fails.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation

QUESTION 30
Which three actions must you perform to implement Cisco FabricPath on a data center network? (Choose
three )
A. Configure the VLAN in FabricPath mode
B. Configure the interface to use the STP type of normal
C. Configure the interfaces in FabricPath mode
D. Configure the interfaces in trunk mode
E. Enable the IS-IS featureF. Install the FabricPath feature set
Correct Answer: ACF
Explanation

QUESTION 31
Which description of UDLD aggressive mode is true?
A. is enabled by default on all fiber-optic interfaces
B. can be configured on point-to-multipoint links only
C. is enabled by default on copper interfaces
D. can be configured on point-to-point links only
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 32
Cisco FabricPath is implemented in a data center. You plan lo implement anycast HSRP. What is an
advantage of anycast HSRP as compared HSRPv2?
A. Up to four HSRP gateways can forward traffic simultaneously.
B. HSRP gateways use BFD for faster failure detection
C. An HSRP group can be secured by using MD5.
D. Up to six HSRP gateways can forward traffic simultaneously.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 33
Which two options are reasons to use Layer 3 routing to segment a data center instead of Layer 2
switching? (Choose two.)
A. limit the scope Spanning Tree Protocol
B. limit the scope simplify design
C. broadcast flooding
D. ease of routing protocol configuration
E. cost
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 34
In a three-tier SAN topology, which network layer should you connect the SAN initiators to?
A. storage edge
B. core
C. hostedge
D. distribution
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 35
Which feature can be used to deploy overlapping IP address spaces within a tenant in the Cisco ACI
fabric?
A. private networks
B. external routed networks
C. L3Out
D. bridge domains
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 36
Which statement accurately describes Cisco NSF?
A. To configure NSF for an OSPF routing environment, all Area 0 devices and ABRs must be NSF-aware
and must be configured for OSPF graceful restart.
B. To configure NSF for an IS-IS routing environment, only L1 routers must be NSF-aware and must be
configured for IS-IS graceful restart
C. To configure NSF for a BGP routing environment, all neighboring devices must be NSF- aware and
must be configured for BGP graceful restart
D. To configure NSF for an IS-IS routing environment, only L2 routers must be NSF-aware and must be
configured for IS-IS graceful restart
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 37
In order to provide a specific UCS B-Series blade access to a dedicated uplink on a Fabric interconnect
with multiple uplinks connected, which item must to be configured?
A. vNIC placement policy
B. IOM Port Group
C. Static Pinning Policy
D. LAN Pin Group
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 38
Which two statements accurately describe a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect cluster? (Choose two )
A. Only the active Fabric Interconnect forwards data traffic
B. The Fabric Interconnect cluster uses a Cisco UCS B-Senes Blade Server chassis to forward data when
the L1-L2 links are down
C. The Fabric Interconnect cluster uses a virtual IP address for management connections
D. The Fabric Interconnect uses L1-L2 links to forward data when the primary Fabric Interconnect uplinks
are down.
E. primary Fabric Inter connect node conies up after a failure, the node compares the Cisco UCS system
database version to Fabric Interconnect
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 39
Which two types of connections can be used to build data center interconnects via vPC? (Choose two)A. company-owned DWDM
B. service providers MPLS
C. service provider IP
D. service provider DWDM
E. service provider VPLS
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation

QUESTION 40
You plan to configure OTV multicast. What must you enable to use SSM?
A. IGMFv3
B. PIM-DM
C. IGMPv2
D. PIM-SM
E. PIM Anycast-RP
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

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Up to the Immediate Present Cisco 210-255 Dumps Exam Cram(1-35)

QUESTION 1
210-255 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of log is this an example of?
A. syslog
B. NetFlow log
C. proxy log
D. IDS log
210-255 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which option creates a display filter on Wireshark on a host IP address or name?
A. ip.address ==or ip.network ==
B. [tcp|udp] ip.[src|dst] port
C. ip.addr == or ip.name ==
D. ip.addr == or ip.host ==
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which data element must be protected with regards to PCI?
A. past health condition
B. geographic location
C. full name
D. recent payment amount
210-255 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which kind of evidence can be considered most reliable to arrive at an analytical assertion?
A. direct
B. corroborative
C. indirect
D. circumstantial
E. textual
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is an example of a managed security offering where incident response experts monitor and respond to security alerts in a security operations center (SOC)?
A. Cisco CloudLock
B. Cisco’s Active Threat Analytics (ATA)
C. Cisco Managed Firepower Service
D. Cisco Jasper
210-255 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which two options can be used by a threat actor to determine the role of a server? (Choose two.)
A. PCAP
B. tracert
C. running processes
D. hard drive configuration
E. applications
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7
210-255 dumps
Refer to the Exhibit. A customer reports that they cannot access your organization’s website. Which option is a possible reason that the customer cannot access the website?
A. The server at 10.33.1.5 is using up too much bandwidth causing a denial- of-service.
B. The server at 10.67.10.5 has a virus.
C. A vulnerability scanner has shown that 10.67.10.5 has been compromised.
D. Web traffic sent from 10.67.10.5 has been identified as malicious by Internet sensors.
210-255 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which option is a misuse variety per VERIS enumerations?
A. snooping
B. hacking
C. theft
D. assault
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which Security Operations Center’s goal is to provide incident handling to a country?
A. Coordination Center
B. Internal CSIRT
C. National CSIRT
D. Analysis Center
210-255 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which CVSSv3 metric captures the level of access that is required for a successful attack?
A. attack vector
B. attack complexity
C. privileges required
D. user interaction
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which process is being utilized when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?
A. data normalization
B. data availability
C. data protection
D. data signature
210-255 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which source provides reports of vulnerabilities in software and hardware to a Security Operations Center?
A. Analysis Center
B. National CSIRT
C. Internal CSIRT
D. Physical Security
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Drag and drop the type of evidence from the left onto the correct descnption(s) of that evidence on the right.
Select and Place:
210-255 dumps

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the NetFlow v5 record from a security event on the right.
210-255 dumps
Select and Place:
210-255 dumps
210-255 pdf Correct Answer:
210-255 dumps

QUESTION 15
From a security perspective, why is it important to employ a clock synchronization protocol on a network?
A. so that everyone knows the local time
B. to ensure employees adhere to work schedule
C. to construct an accurate timeline of events when responding to an incident
D. to guarantee that updates are pushed out according to schedule
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which string matches the regular expression r(ege)+x?
A. rx
B. regeegex
C. r(ege)x
D. rege+x
210-255 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which two HTTP header fields relate to intrusion analysis? (Choose two).
A. user-agent
B. host
C. connection
D. language
E. handshake type
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
210-255 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this ping result?
A. The public IP address of cisco.com is 2001:420:1101:1::a.
B. The Cisco.com website is down.
C. The Cisco.com website is responding with an internal IP.
D. The public IP address of cisco.com is an IPv4 address.
210-255 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
What information from HTTP logs can be used to find a threat actor?
A. referer
B. IP address
C. user-agent
D. URL
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which of the following are not components of the 5-tuple of a flow in NetFlow? (Select all that apply.)
A. Source IP address
B. Flow record ID
C. Gateway
D. Source port
E. Destination port
210-255 dumps Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 21
You have run a suspicious file in a sandbox analysis tool to see what the file does. The analysis report shows that outbound callouts were made post infection.Which two pieces of information from the analysis report are needed or required to investigate the callouts? (Choose two.)
A. file size
B. domain names
C. dropped files
D. signatures
E. host IP addresses
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 22
What is accomplished in the identification phase of incident handling?
A. determining the responsible user
B. identifying source and destination IP addresses
C. defining the limits of your authority related to a security event
D. determining that a security event has occurred
210-255 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Which regular expression matches “color” and “colour”?
A. col[0-9]+our
B. colo?ur
C. colou?r
D. ]a-z]{7}
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
You see 100 HTTP GET and POST requests for various pages on one of your webservers. The user agent in the requests contain php code that, if executed, creates and writes to a new php file on the webserver. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Diamond Model of Intrusion?
A. delivery
B. reconnaissance
C. action on objectives
D. installation
E. exploitation
210-255 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
During which phase of the forensic process are tools and techniques used to extract the relevant information from the collective data?
A. examination
B. reporting
C. collection
D. investigation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which goal of data normalization is true?
A. Reduce data redundancy.
B. Increase data redundancy.
C. Reduce data availability.
D. Increase data availability
210-255 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
What mechanism does the Linux operating system provide to control access to files?
A. privileges required
B. user interaction
C. file permissions
D. access complexity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
In Microsoft Windows, as files are deleted the space they were allocated eventually is considered available for use by other files. This creates alternating used and unused areas of various sizes. What is this called?
A. network file storing
B. free space fragmentation
C. alternate data streaming
D. defragmentation
210-255 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is one of the main goals of data normalization?
A. To save duplicate logs for redundancy
B. To purge redundant data while maintaining data integrity
C. To correlate IPS and IDS logs with DNS
D. To correlate IPS/IDS logs with firewall logs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
A CMS plugin creates two files that are accessible from the Internet myplugin.html and exploitable.php. A newly discovered exploit takes advantage of an injection vulnerability in exploitable.php. To exploit the vulnerability, one must send an HTTP POST with specific variables to exploitable.php. You see traffic to your webserver that consists of only HTTP GET requests to myplugin.html. Which category best describes this activity?
A. weaponization
B. exploitation
C. installation
D. reconnaissance
210-255 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Which option is generated when a file is run through an algorithm and generates a string specific to the contents of that file?
A. URL
B. hash
C. IP address
D. destination port
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
Refer to the following packet capture. Which of the following statements is true about this packet capture? 00:00:04.549138 IP omar.cisco.com.34548 > 93.184.216.34.telnet: Flags [S], seq 3152949738, win 29200, options [mss 1460,sackOK,TS val 1193148797 ecr 0,nop,wscale 7], length 0 00:00:05.547084 IP omar.cisco.com.34548 > 93.184.216.34.telnet: Flags [S], seq
3152949738, win 29200, options [mss 1460,sackOK,TS val 1193149047 ecr 0,nop,wscale 7], length 0 00:00:07.551078 IP omar.cisco.com.34548 > 93.184.216.34.telnet: Flags [S], seq 3152949738, win 29200, options [mss 1460,sackOK,TS val 1193149548 ecr 0,nop,wscale 7], length 0 00:00:11.559081 IP omar.cisco.com.34548 > 93.184.216.34.telnet: Flags [S], seq
3152949738, win 29200, options [mss 1460,sackOK,TS val 1193150550 ecr 0,nop,wscale 7], length 0
A. The host with the IP address 93.184.216.34 is the source.
B. The host omar.cisco.com is the destination.
C. This is a Telnet transaction that is timing out and the server is not responding.
D. The server omar.cisco.com is responding to 93.184.216.34 with four data packets.
210-255 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which option filters a LibPCAP capture that used a host as a gateway?
A. tcp|udp] [src|dst] port B. [src|dst] net [{mask }|{len }]
C. ether [src|dst] host
D. gateway host
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 34
Which feature is used to find possible vulnerable services running on a server?
A. CPU utilization
B. security policy
C. temporary internet files
D. listening ports
210-255 exam Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
Which two components are included in a 5-tuple? (Choose two.)
A. port number
B. destination IP address
C. data packet
D. user name
E. host logs
Correct Answer: BC
210-255 dumps

Implementing Cisco Cybersecurity Operations

Exam Number 210-255 SECOPS
Associated Certifications CCNA Cyber Ops
Duration 90 Minutes (60 – 70 questions)
Available Languages English
  • 1.0 Endpoint Threat Analysis and Computer Forensics 15%
  • 2.0 Network Intrusion Analysis 22%
  • 3.0 Incident Response 18%
  • 4.0 Data and Event Analysis 23%
  • 5.0 Incident Handling 22%

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Up to the Immediate Present Cisco 500-005 Dumps Exam Cram:QUESTION 1
QUESTION 1 Which TX9000 display choice is best for reducing possible issues with viewing angles for conference participants?
A. LCD
B. plasma
C. LED
D. CRT
E. HDTV
500-005 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which two factors are crucial to the immersive Cisco TelePresence experience? (Choose two.)
A. aesthetics
B. acoustics
C. room shape
D. number of windows
E. number of active participants
F. ceiling height
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
The control cable for the 42-inch Auto Collaboration display connects to which component?
A. PS1 codec
B. presentation codec
C. LCU
D. AV expansion box
500-005 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which of these determines the specific role for each codec?
A. the firmware
B. wiring position
C. software revision
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Using the following table, correctly identify the location of each component. Where is each component located?
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 6
When using the TX9000 AV expansion box, how many total video output signals can be obtained using a single video input?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
E. five
F. six
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which device is connected to the TX9000 AV expansion box for video input?
A. presentation (TS4) codec
B. collaboration/presentation display
C. center (TS1) codec
D. built-in video splitter
E. left (TS2) and right (TS3) codec
500-005 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which three components does the LCU control? (Choose three.)
A. the lighting fixture power
B. the primary codec AV input controls
C. the projector
D. the room HVAC controls
E. the LCD settings
F. the PTZ camera controls
G. the yaw of the camera cluster
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 9
From where does the LCU receive its instructions?
A. Cisco TelePresence Touch 12 screen
B. center (TS1) codec
C. left (TS2) codec
D. right (TS3) codec
E. presentation (TS4) codec
500-005 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
Tom has created a Google AdWords for his travel business. He wants to attract visitors to his domain specific to .fr but Google AdWords has not approved his ad. Which one of the following is the likely reason why Tom’s ad has not been approved?
A. The destination URL is not the same country as Tom’s origination.
B. The destination URL must be in French in this instance.
C. The destination URL must be the same as the display URL.
D. The destination URL must be in the same time zone as Tom’s account.
Answer: C
QUESTION 11
The purpose of the Project Communications Management Knowledge Area is to:
A. Monitor and control communications throughout the entire project life cycle.
B. Maintain an optimal flow of information among all project participants.
C. Develop an appropriate approach for project communications.
D. Ensure timely and appropriate collection of project information.
500-005 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Processes in the Initiating Process Group may be completed at the organizational level and be outside of the project’s:
A. Level of control.
B. Communication channels.
C. Scope.
D. Strategic alignment.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?
A. Result
B. Product
C. Service
D. Improvement

500-005 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?
A. Salience
B. Influence/impact
C. Power/interest
D. Power/influence
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Through whom do project managers accomplish work?
A. Consultants and stakeholders
B. Stakeholders and functional managers
C. Project team members and consultants
D. Project team members and stakeholders
500-005 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?
A. Checksheets
B. Histograms
C. Flowcharts
D. Control charts
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
The following is a network diagram for a project. The total float for the project is how many days?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 12
D. 14
500-005 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
The following is a network diagram for a project.  The free float for Activity E is how many days?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?
A. Smooth/accommodate
B. Withdraw/avoid
C. Compromise/reconcile
D. Force/direct
500-005 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:
A. Change control
B. Configuration control
C. Project monitoring and control
D. Issue control
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work?
A. Activity cost estimates
B. Earned value management
C. Cost management plan
D. Cost baseline
500-005 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
While processes in the Planning Process Group seek to collect feedback and define project documents to guide project work, organizational procedures dictate when the project planning:
A. ends.
B. begins.
C. delays.
D. deviates.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
A stakeholder expresses a need not known to the project manager. The project manager most likely missed a step in which stakeholder management process?
A. Plan Stakeholder Management
B. Identify Stakeholders
C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
D. Control Stakeholder Engagement
500-005 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:
A. organizational skills
B. technical skills
C. communication skills
D. hard skills
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project or Phase process?
A. Reserve analysis and expert judgment
B. Facilitation techniques and meetings
C. Expert judgment and analytical techniques
D. Performance reviews and meetings
500-005 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:
A. improvement
B. program
C. result
D. portfolio
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:
A. management
B. response
C. tolerance
D. appetite
500-005 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:
A. Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.
B. Occur at random times in the project plans.
C. Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.
D. Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
Which type of graphic is displayed below?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Context diagram
C. Control chart
D. Pareto diagram
500-005 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
An example of a group decision-making technique is:
A. nominal group technique
B. majority
C. affinity diagram
D. multi-criteria decision analysis
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?
A. Procurement documents
B. Inspection and audits
C. Estimate budget
D. Risk register

500-005 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32
Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to which interpersonal skill?
A. Influencing
B. Motivation
C. Negotiation
D. Trust building
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
The following is a network diagram for a project. The shortest non-critical path for the project is how many days in duration?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
500-005 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
The following is a network diagram for a project.  The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 17
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:
A. recognition and rewards
B. compliance
C. staff acquisition
D. training needs
500-005 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders process should be:
A. Continuous
B. Discrete
C. Regulated
D. Arbitrary
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
A graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships is known as a:
A. Resource calendar.
B. Project organization chart.
C. Resource breakdown structure (RBS).
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM).
500-005 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Which item is a cost of conformance?
A. Training
B. Liabilities
C. Lost business
D. Scrap
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?
A. Collaboration
B. Negotiation
C. Decision making
D. Influencing
500-005 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
Activity cost estimates and the project schedule are inputs to which Project Cost Management process?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Determine Budget
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 41
In project management, a temporary project can be:
A. Completed without planning
B. A routine business process
C. Long in duration
D. Ongoing to produce goods
500-005 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 42
Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement Management process?
A. Budget estimates
B. Risk matrix
C. Requirements documentation
D. Procurement documents
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 43
Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?
A. Uniform
B. Continuous
C. Discrete
D. Linear
500-005 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44
Which change request is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan?
A. Update
B. Preventive action
C. Defect repair
D. Corrective action
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 45
Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?
A. 100
B. 120
C. 1,000
D. 1,200
500-005 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
Which stakeholder approves a project’s result?
A. Customer
B. Sponsor
C. Seller
D. Functional manager
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 47
Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders’ needs and requirements to meet project objectives?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Plan Scope Management
C. Define Scope
D. Define Activities
500-005 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders’ needs and requirements and:
A. Available organizational assets
B. Project staff assignments
C. Interpersonal skills
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:
A. Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests
B. Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools
C. Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project
D. Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board
500-005 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:
A. lead
B. lag
C. mandatory dependency
D. internal dependency
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 51
Which action is included in the Control Costs process?
A. Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled
B. Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs
C. Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities
D. Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline
500-005 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate (0.20)?
A. 0.03
B. 0.06
C. 0.10
D. 0.50
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 53
A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:
A. a Knowledge Area
B. a Process Group
C. program management
D. portfolio management
500-005 pdf Correct Answer: A

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Where can I download valid Cisco 200-105 dumps? The Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0) (200-105 ICND2) exam is a 90 Minutes (45-55 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNA Routing & Switching certification. Useful Cisco 200-105 dumps ICND2 practice test with 100% guarantee 200-105 dumps Youtube study. “Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 200-105 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 200-105 exam. This Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices provides a vehicle that allows you key skills and talent to be internationally recognized. After the completion of Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-105.html dumps you can realize maximum advantages from a wide range of expertise. In these difficult economic times, now organizations are willing to pay to get the right and expert people in the right positions.

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200-105 dumps
Up to the Immediate Present Cisco 200-105 Dumps Exam Cram:
QUESTION 54
What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?
A. 0000.5E00.01A3
B. 0007.B400.AE01
C. 0000.0C07.AC15
D. 0007.5E00.B301
200-105 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 55
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address arrives at the interface? (Select three.)
A. Send an SNMP trap.
B. Send a syslog message.
C. Increment the Security Violation counter.
D. Forward the traffic.
E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.
F. Shut down the port.
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 56
200-105 dumps
200-105 dumps
What would be the destination Layer 2 address in the frame header for a frame that is being forwarded by Dubai to the host address of 172.30.4.4?
A. 825
B. 230
C. 694
D. 387
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 57
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a server with the address of 192.168.13.26. Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
200-105 dumps Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION NO: 58
Which log type should be enabled to troubleshoot IPSec authentication issues on Aruba Controllers?
A. Security Logs
B. Management Logs
C. Wireless Logs
D. IDS Logs
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 59
Referring to the above screen capture,  if an administrator desires to change a specific AP into an AM without assigning the AP to a new group, which menus could be used?
A. Network > Controller
B. Wireless > AP Configuration
C. Wireless > AP Installation
D. Advanced Services > Wireless
E. Advanced Services > All Profiles
200-105 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 60
A customer forgot all passwords for a controller. What method could you use to reset the passwords?
A. Telnet to the controller and login to the password recovery account
B. SSH to the controller and login to the password recovery account
C. Connect directly to the serial console and login to the password recovery account
D. Interrupt the boot process at CP-boot and select password recovery
E. Open the controller and press the reset switch
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 61
Which tunnel protocol is used between controllers to support L2 mobility in an Aruba environment?
A. Basic IP
B. GRE
C. IPinIP
D. Mobile IP
E. None of the above
200-105 vce Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 62
In an Aruba based system, the L3 mobility tunnel exists between the home agent and which other element?
A. the default gateway
B. the remote AP
C. the foreign agent
D. the mobile node
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 63
When roaming, by default which device will decide when to handoff / move to another AP?
A. Aruba AP
B. Aruba controller
C. Client PC
D. Radius Server
E. Router
200-105 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 64
The above diagram has one master and three local controllers.  All controllers are configured with the wireless user VLAN 201. A wireless user associates with AP 1. Only L2 mobility is enabled. Which elements will know about this association? (Choose all of the correct answers.)
A. Local 1
B. Local 2
C. Local 3
D. Master
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 65
Which command will show all client association history?
A. Aruba-6000# show mobile trail current (ip address)
B. Aruba-6000# show ip mobile trail (ip address)
C. Aruba-6000# show ap client status (mac address)
D. Aruba-6000# show current client ip (ip address)
200-105 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 66
By default, how long will an AP scan a single channel when ARM is enabled?
A. 80 milliseconds
B. 90 milliseconds
C. 100 milliseconds
D. 110 milliseconds
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 67
Which actions does ARM (Adaptive Radio Management) perform? (Choose all correct answers.)
A. allows controllers to provision the AP Radio type
B. allows controllers to provision the best channel for APs
C. allows controllers to provision the best power setting for APs
D. attempts to Self Heal in case of an AP failure
200-105 pdf Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 68
Which of the following metrics does the ARM feature use to calculate the optimal channel and power level for Access Points? (Choose all correct answers)
A. RF Spectrum Index
B. Priority Index
C. Interference Index
D. Coverage Index
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 69
How does the ARM’s Band Steering feature encourage 5GHz capable clients to move/connect to the 5GHz radios of Aruba APs?
A. ARM “hides” the 2.4GHz radios from 5GHz capable clients
B. ARM utilizes third party software on the wireless clients
C. Current Wi-Fi chipset firmware supports this by default
D. It’s not possible the move clients to 5GHz radios when they can see both 2.4 and 5GHz APs
200-105 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 70
Which of the statements below are TRUE regarding ARM’s Spectrum Load Balancing feature? (Choose all correct answers)
A. Available only on 5GHz radios
B. Disabled by default
C. Balances client load across available channels/APs
D. Enabled by default
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 71
What is the function of Band Steering?
A. Balancing clients across APs on different channels within the same band
B. Encourages clients, 5GHz capable, to connect on the 5GHz spectrum
C. Coordinate access to the same channel across multiple APs
D. Enables selection of 20 vs. 40 MHz mode of operation per band
E. Enables acceptable coverage index on both the “b/g” and “a” spectrums
200-105 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 72
What are the Airtime Allocation Policy options for Airtime Performance Protection?
A. Default Access
B. Priority Access
C. Fair Access
D. Preferred Access
E. Distributed Access
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 73
Which of the following statement is true of the Spectrum Mode?
A. No licenses are required to run an AP in Spectrum mode
B. Spectrum mode can only be configured for one AP at a time
C. An AP can be in spectrum mode for both 2.4 and 5G bands at the same time
D. Spectrum Mode is configured under Spectrum Profile
200-105 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 74
Which of the following charts are available for selection in Spectrum Dashboard for AP 125?
A. FFT Duty Cycle
B. Channel Quality
C. Active Devices by Channel
D. Number of Spectrum Monitors
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 75
Which settings can be modified directly from a local controller? (Choose all correct answers.)
A. Port VLAN setting
B. Switch Time Zone
C. Port trusted
D. Roles
E. SNMP Enable Trap Generation
200-105 dumps Answer: A,B,C,E
QUESTION NO: 76

Masters communicate configuration information with locals using which tunnel type?
A. GRE
B. IP in IP
C. Provision Tunnel Protocol
D. IPSec
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 77
In the above screen capture, the administrator notes that the “Save As” and “Apply” buttons are grayed out and have no action. What is the cause of the problem?
A. attempting to make changes on a Master Switch
B. attempting changes on a Local Switch
C. does not have administrative rights to perform these actions
D. does not have the correct software license
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 78
Referring to the above screen capture,
on which switch can you create a vlan?
A. Controller 10.1.11.100 only
B. Controller 10.1.11.101 and 10.254.1.3 only
C. All three Controllers
D. None
200-105 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 79
Referring to the above screen capture,
on which switch can you add an administrative user and assign a switch management role?
A. Controller 10.1.11.100 only
B. Controller 10.1.11.101 and 10.254.1.3 only
C. All three Controllers
D. None
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 80
What type of license is required on the Aruba S3500 for tunneled node operation?
A. PEF-NG
B. No license is required
C. Tunneled node license for each wired AP
D. Tunneled node license for each S3500
200-105 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 81
Refer to the above screen capture. By default, which switch’s internal database will be used for user authentication?
A. Controller 10.1.11.100 only
B. Controller 10.1.11.101 and 10.254.1.3 only
C. All three Controllers
D. None
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 82
Referring to the above screen capture, on which switch can you modify APs to enable ARM?
A. Controller 10.1.11.100 only
B. Controller 10.1.11.101 and 10.254.1.3 only
C. All three Controllers
D. None
200-105 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 83
Aruba access points are logically connected to controllers using which protocol?
A. 802.1q
B. LWAPP
C. PPTP
D. GRE
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 84
Which types of encryption will an Aruba access point perform on traffic sent through a Campus AP Virtual AP (VAP) profile in Tunnel forwarding mode?
A. TKIP & AES
B. WEP & TKIP
C. WEP & AES
D. WEP, TKIP, & AES
E. None of the above
200-105 dumps Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 85
Where in the network can Aruba controllers be deployed?
A. access
B. distribution
C. core
D. all of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 86
In a campus environment, where are encryption keys sent or stored when users roam from AP
to AP on the same controller using 802.1X?
A. sent to the new AP via GRE
B. sent to the new AP via IPSec
C. stored on the controller
D. stored on the RADIUS server
200-105 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 87
Your client would like you to create an advertisement that uses an animated image with Google
AdWords. Is this possible?
A. No, Google AdWords can use images, but not animated images as part of its program.
B. Yes, Google AdWords now usesimages and animated images, but only for participants of select content sites.
C. No, Google AdWords does not use images as part of its program.
D. Yes, Google AdWords now uses images and animated images as part of its program for search sites.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 88
Gary wants to create an image ad for his Google AdWords account. In particular Gary wants to create the standard square ad. When Gary creates his image what size should the image be?
A. 200 x 200
B. 250 x 250
C. It doesn’t matter, Google AdWords will resize the image for Gary to fit the ad.
D. Google AdWords doesn’t use square ads, just banner ads at 468 x 60.
200-105 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 89
Lila is a Google AdWords consultant for a company that sells candy online. Lila has created ads for this client but the clickthrough rate has not been good. Lila reads that tightly themed ad groups are one of the best suggestions to improve an ad’s clickthrough rate. Which one of the following statements is the best example of a tightly themed ad group?
A. Lilashould create one ad group for each type of candy her client sells.
B. Lila should include call-to-action requests such as “Order Fresh Candy” for the ad.
C. Lila should target the geographical area where the candy store exists.
D. Lila should improve thecandy store’s Website design.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 90
You are reviewing the Google AdWords formula to determine your Ad Rank. Google says that increasing your maximum CPC can improve the position of your ad. You always pay the lowest amount possible for the highest position you can get given your Quality Score and CPC bid. Google divides what factor by your quality score to determine where your ad is ranked?
A. The quality score average of all other bidders
B. The ad rank of the ad showing above you
C. The ad rank of the ad in the last position on the page
D. The ad rank of the ad showing beneath you
200-105 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 91
Thomas is working with Anne to customize their Google AdWords ad. Anne wants to make certain that her ads rotate rather than show the same ads over and over. How can Anne ensure that her ads will rotate when they’re displayed?
A. Anne should choose the Swivel option in the Advance settings section of her campaign’s Settings tab.
B. Anne should choose the Optimize option in the Advancesettings section of her campaign’s Settings tab.
C. Anne should choose the Optimize option in the Serving settings section of her campaign’s Settings tab.
D. Anne should choose the Rotate option in the Advance settings section of her campaign’s Settings tab.
Answer: D
200-105 dumps

 

Cisco 200-105 dumps certification is the best proof of your knowledge, skills, and expertise.it is the process in which you prove technical skills through the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Cisco exam. “Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)”, also known as 200-105 exam, is a Cisco certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices 200-105 focuses on the knowledge and skills needed to perform real job responsibilities. Pass4itsure Cisco 200-105 dumps exam questions answers are updated (204 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 200-105 dumps is CCNA Routing & Switching. A professional certification may help increase your income. After the completion of a Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-105.html dumps Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices candidates can increase professional credibility.

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