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300-165 DCII – Cisco:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/dcii.html
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QUESTION 1
Which two options are limitations of NetFlow Version 5? (Choose two.)
A. no support for IPv6, Layer 2, or MPLS fields
B. fixed field specifications
C. excessive network utilization
D. analyzes all packets on the interface
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
QUESTION 2
Which two actions are required before FIPS is configured in Cisco MDS? (Choose two.)
A. Passwords must be a minimum of 10 characters in length.
B. SNMP v2 or v3 must be enabled.
C. Remote authentication must occur utilizing RADIUS/TACACS+.
D. Disable VRRP.
E. Delete all SSH server RSA key pairs.
F. Delete all IKE policies utilizing MD5 or DES for encryption.
G. Enable the FC-FIPS feature.
H. Disable SSH.
Correct Answer: DF
Explanation
QUESTION 3
If you are using NAT in your data center, which load balancing would you be likely to use within your GLBP configuration?
A. none
B. round-robin
C. host dependent
D. weighted
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 4
Which parameter is configurable when setting up logging on the Connectivity Management Processor?
A. the number of CMP messages to save in a single log file
B. the number of times the log can roll over
C. the directory to save the log file to
D. the severity threshold of the messages to log
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Which Cisco NX-OS feature allows transparent Layer 2 extension between sites?
A. FabricPath
B. ETV
C. OTV
D. vPC
E. LISP
F. TrustSec
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 6
Which three options of encryption are supported in PIM hello messages? (Choose three.)
A. cleartext
B. DES-SHA1
C. DES-CBC3-SHA
D. Cisco Type 7
E. RC4-SHA
F. 3DES
Correct Answer: ADF
Explanation
QUESTION 7
Which task must be done before a zone set takes effect?
A. Add a member to the zone.
B. Enter the exit config t command.
C. Enter the copy running-config startup-config command.
D. Enter the zoneset activate name <zone-name> vsan <vsan-#> command.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the maximum IPv6 unicast route memory allocated?
A. 4 MB
B. 8 MB
C. 1024 MB
D. 1 GB
E. 5 MB
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two outcomes occur when the state is Other? (Choose two.)
A. The VSAN on each end of the connection does not match.
B. The interface is not an E Port.
C. The interface is not an F Port.
D. The interface is administratively shut down.
E. Cisco Fabric Services is not enabled.
F. NPIV should be disabled.
G. The interface is functioning, but may have errors.
H. Encryption is not enabled.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which command ensures that a learned MAC address is stored within NVRAM?
A. switchport port-security mac-address address [vlan vlan-ID]
B. switchport port-security
C. switchport port-security mac-address sticky
D. feature port-security
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 11
In Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches, which three statements about SPAN are true? (Choose three.)
A. SPAN source ports can be the in-band interface to the supervisor engine control plane of the switch.
B. SPAN monitor ports can be routed ports.
C. SPAN destination ports can be configured in only one SPAN session at a time.
D. The Cisco Nexus 7000 supports virtual SPAN feature.
E. SPAN destination port actively participates in spanning-tree instance.
F. SPAN destinations cannot be an RSPAN VLAN.
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
QUESTION 12
Which four statements about reserved VLANs in Cisco NX-OS are true? (Choose four.)
A. The range of reserved VLANs cannot be changed.
B. The number of reserved VLANs is 96.
C. A change to the range of reserved VLANs can be performed only in the VDC default.
D. A write-erase procedure restores the default reserved VLAN range.
E. The number of reserved VLANs is 128.
F. A reload is needed for changes to take place.
G. The configuration must be saved for changes to take place.
Correct Answer: CEFG
Explanation
QUESTION 13
Which three options are capabilities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch? (Choose three.)
A. All interface and supervisor modules are accessible from the front.
B. All interface and supervisor modules are accessible from the rear.
C. single power supply only
D. multiple power supply option for redundancy
E. up to 180.7 Tbps forwarding capacity with Fabric-2 modules with 10-slot switches
F. up to 18.7 Tbps forwarding capacity with Fabric-2 modules with 18-slot switches
Correct Answer: ADF
Explanation
QUESTION 14
Which command specifies a load-balancing method based on the MAC address of a host where the same forwarder is always used for a particular host while the number of GLBP group members remains unchanged?
A. load-balancing host-dependent
B. load-balancing mac-pinning
C. load-balancing round-robin
D. load-balancing weighted
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 15
In OTV, how are the VLANs split when a site has two edge devices?
A. They are configured manually by user.
B. They are split in half among each edge device.
C. They are split as odd and even VLAN IDs on each edge device.
D. It is not possible to have two edge devices in same site.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 16
Which protocol is responsible for the discovery of FCoE capabilities on a remote switch?
A. DCE
B. DCBx
C. CDP
D. LLDP
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Data Center Bridging Capabilities Exchange Protocol (DCBX): a discovery and capability exchange protocol that is used for conveying capabilities and configuration of the above features between neighbors to ensure consistent configuration
across the network. This protocol leverages functionality provided by IEEE 802.1AB (LLDP). It is actually included in the 802.1az standard.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Data_center_bridging
QUESTION 17
Which command enables NPIV on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches and Cisco MDS switches?
A. switch(config)# npiv enable
B. switch(config)# npivon
C. switch(config)# feature npiv
D. switch(config)# npiv proxy
E. switch(config)# np proxy-enable
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This command enables NPIV for all VSANs on the switch.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/nx- os/san_switching/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX- OS_SAN_Switching_Configuration_Guide/Cisco_Nexus_7000_NX-
OS_SAN_Switching_Configuration_Guide_chapter2.html
QUESTION 18
Which statement about core-edge SAN topology is true?
A. Converged FCoE links connect the core and edge MDS switches.
B. The SAN core connects to the network aggregation layer.
C. Separate links with the same I/O are used for SAN and LAN traffic.
D. Storage devices are accessed via FCoE over the LAN network.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Aggregation layer of the data center provides connectivity for the Access layer switches in the server farm, an aggregates them into a smaller number of interfaces to be connected into the Core layer. In most data center environments,
the Aggregation layer is the transition point between the purely Layer 3 routed Core layer, and the Layer 2-switched Access layer. 802.1Q trunks extend the server farm VLANs between Access and Aggregation layers. The Aggregation layer
also provides a common connection point to insert services into the data flows between clients and servers, or between tiers of servers in a multi-tier application.
QUESTION 19
Which configuration is specific to Cisco TelePresence System seed devices?
A. radius server radius-server-name
B. aaa session-id common
C. radius-server vsa send authentication
D. aaa new-model
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 20
Which two statements about SAN zoning on Cisco Nexus switches are true? (Choose two.)
A. Unlike configured zones, default zone information is not distributed to the other switches in the fabric.
B. Traffic can either be permitted or denied among members of the default zone. This information is not distributed to all switches. It must be configured in each switch.
C. The settings for default zone configurations cannot be changed.
D. To activate a zone set, you must copy the running configuration to the startup configuration after the zone set is configured.
E. Soft zoning restrictions will not prevent a source device from accessing a device outside its zone, if the source knows the Fibre Channel ID of the destination.
F. Hard zoning is enforced by the hardware on each FLOGI sent by an N Port.
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Each member of a fabric (in effect a device attached to an Nx port) can belong to any zone. If a member is not part of any active zone, it is considered to be part of the default zone. Therefore, if no zone set is active in the fabric, all devices
are considered to be in the default zone. Even though a member can belong to multiple zones, a member that is part of the default zone cannot be part of any other zone. The switch determines whether a port is a member of the default zone
when the attached port comes up. Unlike configured zones, default zone information is not distributed to the other switches in the fabric Traffic can either be permitted or denied among members of the default zone. This information is not
distributed to all switches; it must be configured in each switch.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_2/configuration/g uides/fabric/DCNM-SAN/fm_fabric/zone.html
QUESTION 21
Which statement describes what happens if a new EPLD version is released with a new Cisco NX-OS version for a Cisco Nexus switch, but these EPLDs are not upgraded at the same time that NX-OS is upgraded?
A. Any new hardware or software feature that depends on the updated EPLD image is disabled until upgraded.
B. Modules that use an updated EPLD image remain offline until the EPLD is upgraded.
C. The EPLD image version mismatch is detected by the supervisor, which automatically initiates an upgrade.
D. The Cisco NX-OS upgrade fails as a result of the mismatch between EPLDs and NX-OS versions.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 22
Which command is used to associate EID-to-RLOC for a LISP site?
A. #feature lisp
B. #ipv6 lisp itr
C. #ip lisp database-mapping
D. #ip lisp itr map-resolver
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 23
Which feature must be enabled for Cisco TrustSec FC Link Encryption to work on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch?
A. crypto IKE
B. port security
C. LDAP
D. FC-SP
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 24
Which three attributes encompass a local user account on a Cisco NX-OS device? (Choose three.)
A. expiration date
B. cisco-avpair
C. password
D. AAA server address
E. user roles
F. bind user DN
G. user privileges
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
QUESTION 25
Which command activates the port security database for VSAN 1 regardless of conflicts?
A. port-security commit vsan 1
B. no port-security auto-learn vsan 1
C. port-security activate vsan 1 force
D. port-security database vsan 1Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 26
Which three options are capabilities of the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Supervisor Module? (Choose three.)
A. hardware forwarding on the supervisor module
B. fully decoupled control plane and data plane with no forwarding on the supervisor module
C. Sup2 requires Cisco NX-OS 5.1 or later.
D. Sup2 requires Cisco NX-OS 6.1 or later.
E. Sup2E supports 8+1 VDC with the N7K-VDC1K9 license per chassis.
F. Sup2 supports 8+1 VDCs with the N7K-VDC1K9 license per chassis.
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands are missing from this configuration that an admin needs to integrate a Cisco Nexus 5000 switch with vCenter to leverage VM-FEX? (Choose two.)
A. vmware dvs datacenter-name
B. vmware dvs
C. remote ip address port 80 vrf
D. connection-type vmware
E. installation-method auto
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 28
Which three parameters can be set when configuring a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch to use a TACACS+ server? (Choose three.)
A. group-size
B. deadtime
C. timeout
D. keep-alive
E. retransmit
Correct Answer: BCE
Explanation
QUESTION 29
Which item represents the process that allows FCoE multihop using T11 standard FC-BB- 5?
A. distributed FCF
B. FIP proxy
C. N Port proxy
D. FIP snooping
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
FIP snooping is used in multi-hop FCoE environments. FIP snooping is a frame inspection method that can be used by FIP snooping capable DCB devices to monitor FIP frames and apply policies based on the information in those frames.
This allows for:
Enhanced FCoE security (Prevents FCoE MAC spoofing.) Creates FC point-to-point links within the Ethernet LAN Allows auto-configuration of ACLs based on name server information read in the FIP frames
Reference: http://www.definethecloud.net/fcoe-initialization-protocol-fip-deep-dive/
QUESTION 30
Which two elements must be configured correctly for Cisco TrustSec Fibre Channel Link Encryption to work on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch? (Choose two.)
A. AES-GMAC
B. key
C. salt
D. AAA
E. group
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
QUESTION 31
Which FCoE component is responsible for the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of Fibre Channel frames in Ethernet?
A. distributed FCF
B. FCoE node
C. FCoE logical endpoint
D. Fibre Channel forwarder
E. FCoE forwarder
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The FCoE Logical Endpoint (FCoE_LEP) is responsible for the encapsulation and deencapsulation functions of the FCoE traffic. FCoE_LEP has the standard Fibre Channel layers, starting with FC-2 and continuing up the Fibre Channel
Protocol stack.
Reference: https://www.safaribooksonline.com/library/view/ccna-data- center/9780133860429/ch11lev3sec5.html
QUESTION 32
Which example creates an Embedded Event Manager policy allowing the CLI command to execute, and triggers an SNMP notification when a user enters configuration mode? A)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 33
When implementing Cisco Adapter FEX, which setting on the virtual interface card on the Cisco UCS C-Series Server must be configured?
A. uplink failover
B. PXE boot
C. network interface virtualization
D. VM-FEX
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 34
Which statement about the MPLS feature set is true?
A. It is not license dependent.
B. It can be installed from any VDC.
C. It can be enabled only in the default VDC.
D. It must be installed from the default VDC.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
QUESTION 35
When creating a VDC on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch, which command in the VDC designates that only 10 port channels can be created in that VDC?
A. allocate resource port-channel 10
B. limit-resource port-channel minimum 0 maximum 10
C. allow-resource port-channel maximum 10
D. port-channel maximum 10
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 36
Which option shows how to configure an ERSPAN Type III source session in Cisco NX-OS 6.2?
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Which two advantages does FabricPath have over Spanning Tree in implementing a loop- free network topology design? (Choose two.)
A. Blocked links can be brought in to service if active links fail.
B. Convergence times are faster.C. Multipath forwarding is supported for unicast and multicast Layer 2 and Layer 3 traffic.
D. Unknown unicast addresses are flooded in through the originating port.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
QUESTION 38
Between which two types of ports does FIP establish Fibre Channel virtual links? (Choose two.)
A. VE Ports and VE Ports
B. N Ports and F Ports
C. VN Ports and VF Ports
D. VP Ports and VE Ports
E. VE Ports and VF Ports
F. E Ports and E Ports
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
FIP aims to establish virtual FC links between VN_Ports and VF_Ports (ENode to FCF), as well as between pairs of VE_Ports (FCF to FCF), since these are the only legal combinations supported by native Fibre Channel fabrics. Standards-
compliant implementations are not required to support both forms of virtual FC links, and Cisco has decided to focus initially on implementing FIP only between ENodes and FCFs. FCF-to- FCF connectivity is considered a strategic direction
for end-to-end FCoE deployments, but the short-term urgency is for FCoE adoption between CNAs and the Fibre Channel fabric perimeter, where unified fabric can offer the greatest capital expenditure (CapEx) savings today.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-series- switches/white_paper_c11-560403.html
QUESTION 39
Which two functions are enabled when you set up vPC+ at the FabricPath edge? (Choose two.)
A. the ability to attach Cisco Fabric Extenders in FEX active/active mode
B. the ability to stop all Layer 3 egress traffic
C. the ability to attach servers to edge switches with port-channel teaming
D. the ability to attach additional Classic Ethernet switches in vPC+ mode
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 40
Which feature allows routing protocols to remain in the data path during a supervisor failover?
A. Cisco Nonstop Forwarding
B. Cisco Stateful Switchover
C. Cisco Express Forwarding
D. Cisco Route Processor Redundancy
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 41
Which two RFCs are supported by Cisco NX-OS devices for OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
A. RFC 2238
B. RFC 1918
C. RFC 1583
D. RFC 2453
E. RFC 2740
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
QUESTION 42
Which three options are CallHome predefined destination profiles that are supported on Cisco NX-OS? (Choose three.)
A. CiscoTAC-1
B. full-text-destination
C. pager-xml-destination
D. short-text-destination
E. xml-text-destination
F. pager-json-destination
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
QUESTION 43
Which two statements about SAN zoning on Cisco Nexus switches are true? (Choose two.)
A. Zoning is enforced by examining the destination ID field.
B. Devices can only belong to one zone.
C. Only one zone set can be activated at any time.
D. A zone can only be a member one zone set.
E. Zoning must be administered from the primary SAN switch in the fabric.
F. Zone configuration changes are nondisruptive.
Correct Answer: CF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A zone set can be activated or deactivated as a single entity across all switches in the fabric. Only one zone set can be activated at any time. If zoning is not activated, all devices are members of the default zone. If zoning is activated, any
device that is not in an active zone (a zone that is part of an active zone set) is a member of the default zone. Zoning can be administered from any switch in the fabric. When you activate a zone (from any switch), all switches in the fabric
receive the active zone set. Additionally, full zone sets are distributed to all switches in the fabric, if this feature is enabled in the source switch.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/storage/san_switches/mds9000/sw/san- os/quick/guide/qcg_zones.html
QUESTION 44
How does addition of bandwidth between spine and leaf switches in a FabricPath architecture get utilized?
A. Links between the same set of switches are automatically added to a port channel.
B. Adding additional bandwidth is handled dynamically using the 802.1AX protocol.
C. Traffic is load shared automatically across the available paths to the destination.
D. FabricPath uses hardware bonding of physical interfaces to form higher-speed links.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 45
What configuration is required when implementing FCoE?
A. disable LAN traffic on the interface
B. configure PortFast on the access port
C. permit all VLANs on the interface
D. permit all VSANs on the interface
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
DCBX allows the switch to send a LAN Logical Link Status (LLS) message to a directly- connected CNA. Enter the shutdown lan command to send an LLS-Down message to the CNA. This command causes all VLANs on the interface that
are not enabled for FCoE to be brought down. If a VLAN on the interface is enabled for FCoE, it continues to carry SAN traffic without any interruption.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/fcoe/b_Cisco_Ne xus_5000_Series_NX-OS_Fibre_Channel_over_Ethernet_Configuration_Guide_/Cisco_Nexus_5000_Series_NX- OS_Fibre_Channel_over_Ethernet_Configuration_Guide__chapter3.html
QUESTION 46
Which standard has Cisco used to implement VM-FEX?
A. IEEE 802.1BR
B. IEEE 802.1Qbb
C. IEEE 802.1Qaz
D. IEEE 802.1p
E. IEEE 802.1x
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 47
Which two reasons explain why a server on VLAN 10 is unable to join a multicast stream that originates on VLAN 20? (Choose two.)
A. IGMP snooping and mrouter are not enabled on VLAN 10.
B. VLAN 20 has no IGMP snooping querier defined and VLAN 10 has no mrouter.
C. The mrouter on VLAN 20 does not see the PIM join.
D. The mrouter must be on VLAN 10 and VLAN 20.
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
IGMP snooping is a mechanism to constrain multicast traffic to only the ports that have receivers attached. The mechanism adds efficiency because it enables a Layer 2 switch to selectively send out multicast packets on only the ports that
need them. Without IGMP snooping, the switch floods the packets on every port. The switch “listens” for the exchange of IGMP messages by the router and the end hosts. In this way, the switch builds an IGMP snooping table that has a list of
all the ports that have requested a particular multicast group.
The mrouter port is simply the port from the switch point of view that connects to a multicast router. The presence of at least one mrouter port is absolutely essential for the IGMP snooping operation to work across switches. All Catalyst
platforms have the ability to dynamically learn about the mrouter port. The switches passively listen to either the Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) hellos or the IGMP query messages that a multicast router sends out periodically.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/catalyst-6500-series- switches/68131-cat-multicast-prob.html
QUESTION 48
During the design of a new Cisco Data Center Network, a customer asked when VM-FEX would be used with Cisco Nexus 1000V Switch. Which scenario is most appropriate?
A. when a host must utilize a vSwitch and a distributed vSwitch
B. when using Non-UCS Servers to provide virtualization services with Nexus FEX modules
C. They are mutually exclusive of each other.
D. when a Cisco UCS C-Series server requires Cisco Nexus 1000V Switch to provide VM connectivity
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
QUESTION 49
Drag the description on the left to the most appropriate FCoE protocol or feature on the right.
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ENODES: During FLOGI or FDISC, the ENode advertises the addressing modes it supports. If the FC switch supports an addressing mode that the ENode uses, the virtual link can be established, and the devices can communicate.
FIP: FIP is the set of control plane functions that enable discovery of FCoE-capable devices across FCoE passthrough switches and establishment of legal combinations of virtual links.
FCF: FCoE Initialization Protocol (FIP) is the FCoE control protocol responsible for establishing and maintaining Fibre Channel virtual links between pairs of FCoE devices (ENodes or FCFs). During the virtual link establishment phase, FIP
first discovers FCoE VLANs and remote virtual FC interfaces; then it performs virtual link initialization functions (fabric login [FLOGI] and fabric discovery [FDISC], or exchange link parameters [ELP]) similar to their native Fibre Channel
equivalents. After the virtual link is established, Fibre Channel payloads can be exchanged on the virtual link, and FIP remains in the background to perform virtual link maintenance functions; it continuously verifies reachability between the
two virtual FC interfaces on the Ethernet network, and it offers primitives to delete the virtual link in response to administrative actions to that effect. This document does not describe the virtual link maintenance functions of FIP.
QUESTION 50
VSANs and SAN Zoning have similar security goals, but also have different qualities. Drag the characteristic on the left to the appropriate column heading (VSAN or Zoning) on the right.
Explanation
Explanation/Reference
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