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Exam Code: 70-461
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Sep 08, 2017
Q&As: 164

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Question No : 1  You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server database that supports an application.
The application contains a table that has the following definition:
CREATE TABLE Inventory
(ItemID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
ItemsInStore int NOT NULL,
ItemsInWarehouse int NOT NULL)
You need to create a computed column that returns the sum total of the ItemsInStore and
ItemsInWarehouse values for each row.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS ItemsInStore + ItemsInWarehouse
B. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD ItemsInStore – ItemsInWarehouse = TotalItemss
C. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems = ItemsInStore + ItemsInWarehouse
D. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS SUM(ItemsInStore, ItemslnWarehouse);
070-461 exam Answer: A
Question No : 2  You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. You create a view from the Orders
and OrderDetails tables by using the following definition.

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You need to improve the performance of the view by persisting data to disk. What should
you do?
A. Create an INSTEAD OF trigger on the view.
B. Create an AFTER trigger on the view.
C. Modify the view to use the WITH VIEW_METADATA clause.
D. Create a clustered index on the view.
Answer: D
Question No : 3  You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other
database objects. You create the Airline_Schedules table. You need to store the departure and arrival dates and times of flights along with time zone 70-461 dumps information. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Answer: I
Question No : 4  You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other
database objects. You create a stored procedure. You need to supply the stored procedure
with multiple event names and their dates as parameters. What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Answer: E
Question: 5. A customer has just deployed a new Communication Server 1000 Rls. 5.0 system. You have been
instructed to change the default Level 2 password to comply with the company’s security strategy.
What level password must you use to change the default Level 2 password?
A. Level 1 Password (PW1)
B. Level 2 Password (PW2)
C. Level 3 Password (PW3)
D. Limited Access to Overlays Password (LAPW)
070-461 pdf Answer: B
Question: 6. A customer has deployed a Communication Server 1000E Rls. 5.0 system at their site. Element
Manager is not yet available. When using the Command Line Interface (CLI) to configure the system, you
encounter the following system message:
OVL0000.
What is the meaning of this system message?
A. A telephone is disabled.
B. There is a checksum failure.
C. A user has already logged into the system.
D. The requested program is not in the tape directory.
Answer: C
Question: 7. A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 5.0 system deployed. If using the Command
Line Interface (CLI) to communicate with the system, what command is used to log into the system?
A. LOGI
B. REQ C.
LOGO D.
START
070-461 vce Answer: A
Question: 8. A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 5.0 system and has requested the addition of
two new passwords for general service personnel.

If communicating with the system using the Command Line Interface (CLI), which Overlay (LD) would you
use to add passwords, assuming you have the appropriate access permissions?
A. LD 15
B. LD 17
C. LD 22
D. LD 117
Answer: B
Question: 9. A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 5.0 system. When adding a digital telephone
in LD 11, what four fields comprise the Terminal Number (TN) for this type of system?
A. CO – DID – FX – RAN
B. Loop – Shelf – Card – Unit
C. Power – Memory – CPU – UDATA
D. Tone – Transmitter – Detector – Card
070-461 exam Answer: B
Question: 10
Which two installation modes prompt the user for information during the install process? (Choose
two.)
A. GUI mode
B. Silent mode
C. Console mode
D. Unattended mode
E. Remote administration mode
Answer: A, C
Question: 11
What are the three benefits of BusinessWorks Process Engines using HTTP(S) for run-time
initialization? (Choose three.)
A. HTTP(S) does not use multicast for failover.
B. The Process Engine advertises state over HTTP(S).
C. HTTP(S) may be used in conjunction with firewall security.
D. HTTP(S) allows direct, point-to-point access to the administration server.
E. HTTP(S) does not span network segments automatically and is therefore more secure.
F. HTTP(S) does not require additional network bridging software, making it simpler to set up.
070-461 dumps Answer: C, D, F
Question: 12
What, if any, are the restrictions of using the TIBCO Administrator GUI via a secondary server?
A. There are no restrictions.
B. The only restriction is that you cannot deploy applications from a secondary server.
C. You cannot perform any monitoring or management functions using the GUI until the
secondary server is changed to READ_WRITE.
D. You cannot perform user management, deploy applications, or perform any other activity for
which READ_WRITE access is required.
Answer: D
Question: 13
What are four options for creating a TIBCO team building environment? (Choose four.)
A. Perforce
B. file sharing/locking
C. Visual SourceSafe
D. TIBCO XML Canon
E. TIBCO SmartMapper
F. TIBCO Adapter cross referencing
070-461 pdf Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 14
A BusinessWorks application you are developing uses JMS messaging where the messages only
reside on the local campus. How should you implement conversation level security?
A. You can define the connection used by the message producers and consumers to use SSL.
You also need to provide the appropriate certificates.

B. You can define the message producers and consumers to use PGM which encrypts all
message content. You must also provide the appropriate certificates.
C. You can define the connection used by the message producers and consumers to use a VPN.
The network security administrator must configure this for you.
D. You need to write a Java code activity to perform encryption (decryption) of the data before
giving it to the message producer (or after getting from the message consumer).
Answer: A
Question: 15
A new integration initiative in your department requires that both a test domain and a production
domain be set up for your system integration staff. Due to heightened security, it is essential that
all aspects of the environments be completely segregated. Which three actions must you take to
achieve this? (Choose three.)
A. install test and production TIBCO Administrator servers on machine A
B. ensure that all Message Service Bus components are installed on a single network subnet
C. ensure that each TIBCO BusinessWorks component belongs to only one appropriate domain
D. ensure the TIBCO Runtime Agent network traffic for each domain is limited to a single network
subnet
E. install a test TIBCO Administrator server on machine A and a production TIBCO Administrator
server on machine B
F. ensure that the Message Service Bus naming conventions and settings are separate for test
and production domains
070-461 vce Answer: C, E, F
Question: 16
You want to use a host system to run deployed BusinessWorks process engines. Which two
products must be installed on this host? (Choose two.)
A. Sun Java JRE
B. TIBCO Designer
C. TIBCO Administrator
D. TIBCO Runtime Agent
E. TIBCO BusinessWorks
Answer: D, E
Question: 17
What is a restriction on the consumption of JMS queue messages?
A. The JMS queue message consumers cannot use selectors.
B. There can only be one active consuming client per JMS queue.
C. A single JMS queue message can only be consumed by one client.
D. The limit of how many clients can consume a single JMS queue message is determined by the
prefetch configuration.
070-461 exam Answer: C
Question: 18
What is used to add a host machine to a TIBCO Administrative Domain?
A. corporate LDAP
B. TIBCO Domain Utility

C. TIBCO Administrator GUI
D. TIBCO Administrator Installer
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-347
Exam Name: Enabling Office 365 Services
Q&As: 219

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13.DRAG DROP
Your company uses Microsoft SharePoint Online. You create a subsite in an existing site collection. The
subsite will serve as a document repository from which anyone can download documents. External
sharing is turned off globally. You plan to share 070-347 exam documents with users by emailing document links. Users
must not be required to sign in to the subsite to download the documents. You need to configure the
environment to allow document sharing with external users.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the
list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

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14.Your company has an Office 365 Enterprise El subscription. The company wants to implement an
enterprise document collaboration and social networking platform that allows users to upload documents
from their computers and conduct informal polls. You need to implement a solution that meets the
requirements.

Which solution should you implement?
A. Microsoft SharePoint document libraries
B. Microsoft SharePoint surveys
C. Microsoft Yammer
D. Microsoft SharePoint newsfeeds
E. Microsoft SkyDrive Pro
Answer: C
15.Your company has an Office 365 Small Business subscription. You are the Microsoft SharePoint
70-347 dumps Online administrator. The company wants to have two separate public websites with different URLs. You
need to configure the environment to support the public websites.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade to SharePoint Online for Office 365 Enterprise, Education, and Government.
B. Create one public website and one subsite, and then configure a redirect.
C. Create two public websites and configure the DNS records for each site.
D. Upgrade to SharePoint Online for Office 365 Midsize Business.
Answer: B
16.DRAG DROP
Your company has an Office 365 Enterprise E3 subscription. You are the Microsoft SharePoint Online
administrator. You create a site collection for the marketing department. After the site collection is created,
a different employee is chosen as the site collection administrator. You need to grant the user the
appropriate permissions.
In the SharePoint admin portal, which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move
the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

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17.Your company plans to use Office 365 and Microsoft SharePoint Online. Another employee provisions
the company’s Office 365 tenant. You discover that the employee can create and manage SharePoint site
collections. You need to prevent the employee from creating or managing site collections.
From which role should you remove the employee?
A. Service administrator
B. SharePoint Online administrator
C. Global administrator
D. Site collection administrator
070-347 pdf Answer: C
18.Which device is enabled by default when creating a mirror set in a MirrorView/S environment on a
CX4-120 with FLARE 28?
A.Write intent log
B.Reserved LUN pool
C.Secondary Image
D.Clone private LUN
Answer:B
19.Which object would maintain the changes to a source LUN in the event a MirrorView/S configuration
suffered a link outage followed by an SP trespass?
A.Metavolume
B.Fracture log
C.Write intent log
D.Clone private LUN
070-347 vce Answer:C
20.In a MirrorView/S environment, a primary image is owned by SPA on the primary array. Which SP must
own the secondary image on the secondary array within the same mirror set?
A.Either SP on the secondary array
B.SPB on the secondary array
C.SPA on the secondary array
D.It is marked as a private LUN on the secondary array
Answer:C
21.The primary image of a MirrorView/S mirror set has trespassed from SPA to SPB on the primary
array.Which SP now owns the secondary image?
A.ALUA determines ownership
B.SPA on the secondary array
C.Neither SPA or SPB
D.SPB on the secondary array
070-347 exam Answer:D
22.Which best describes the MirrorView/A replication process?
A.A write is received, tracked in the SAN Copy delta set mechanism, transmitted to the secondary array.
B.A write is received, tracked in the fracture log, transmitted to the secondary array.
C.A write is received, tracked in the SnapView private LUN, transmitted to the secondary array.
D.A write is received, tracked in the write intent log, transmitted to the secondary array.
Answer:A
23.During normal MirrorView/S operations, Navisphere Manager permits host access to how many
secondary images?
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.4
70-347 dumps Answer:A
24.What CLARiiON is needed to meet a customer’s requirement for their MirrorView/S environment that
will have 50 consistency groups?
A.CX4, FLARE 22
B.CX4, FLARE 28
C.CX3, FLARE 26
D.CX3, FLARE 28
Answer:B
25.If a customer wants to present a secondary image LUN of a MirrorView/S mirror set to a host, what
must they do first?
A.The primary image must be removed from the mirror set.
B.The secondary image must be placed in the host storage group.
C.The secondary image must be removed from the mirror set or the secondary image promoted to a
primary image.
D.The secondary image must be fractured from the mirror set or the secondary image promoted to a
primary image.
070-347 pdf Answer:C

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QUESTION 26
You are testing disaster recovery procedures. You attempt to restore DB1 to a different server and you receive the following error message:
“Msg 33111.
Level 16, State 3, Line 1
Cannot find server certificate with thumbprint
,0xA694FBEA88C9354E5E2567C30A2A69E8FB4C44A9\
Msg 3013, Level 16, State 1, Line 1
RESTORE DATABASE is terminating abnormally.”
You need to ensure that you can restore DB1 to a different server. Which code segment should you execute?

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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
070-464 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
You need to create the InvoiceStatus table in DB1. How should you define the InvoiceID column in the CREATE TABLE statement?
070-464 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Which data type should you use for CustomerID?
A. varchar(11)
B. bigint
C. nvarchar(11)
D. char(11)
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Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 29
You need to modify InsertInvoice to comply with the application requirements. Which code segment should you execute?
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A. Option A
B. Option B

C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
You attempt to process an invoice by using usp_InsertInvoice.sql and you receive the following error message: “Msg 515, Level 16, State 2, Procedure usp_InsertInvoice, Line 10 Cannot insert the value NULL into column ‘InvoiceDate’, table ‘DB1.Accounting.Invoices’; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails.” You need to modify usp_InsertInvoice.sql to resolve the error.
How should you modify the INSERT statement?
A. InvoiceDate varchar(l00) ‘InvoiceDate’,
B. InvoiceDate varchar(100) ‘Customer/InvoiceDate’, ‘
C. InvoiceDate date ‘@InvoiceDate’,
D. InvoiceDate date ‘Customer/@InvoiceDate’,
070-464 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
You need to modify the function in CountryFromID.sql to ensure that the country name is returned instead of the country ID. Which line of code should you modify in CountryFromID.sql?
A. 04
B. 05
C. 06
D. 19
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 32
You execute IndexManagement.sql and you receive the following error message: “Msg 512, Level 16, State 1, Line 12
Subquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when the subquery follows =,! =, <, <= ,>, > = or when the subquery is used as an expression.” You need to ensure that IndexManagement.sql executes properly. Which WHILE statement should you use at line 18?
A. WHILE SUM(@RowNumber) < (SELECT @counter FROM @indextable)
B. WHILE @counter < (SELECT COUNT(RowNumber) FROM @indextable)
C. WHILE COUNT(@RowNumber) < (SELECT @counter FROM @indextable)
D. WHILE @counter < (SELECT SUM(RowNumber) FROM @indextabie)
070-464 vce 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Question No : 33  According to keegan’s model of adaptation strategies, a firm that decides to operate globally by changing its product and its promotion methods has chosen
A. A dual adaptation strategy.
B. The backward variant of a product invention strategy.
C. The forward variant of a product invention strategy.
D. A straight extension strategy.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Communication adaptation is a strategy that does not change the products, but advertising and marketing campaigns are changed to reflect the local culture and beliefs. In contrast, a dual adaptation strategy changes both the product and the promotion to provide the best chance of acceptance in a foreign market.
Question No : 34
Distribution channels ensure that goods in international trade are transferred successfully to end users. Where are intermediaries, such as trading companies, most likely selected?
A. Channels within nations.
B. Export department of the seller.
C. International division of the seller.
D. Channels between nations.
070-464 exam 
Answer: D
Explanation:
Channels between nations carry goods to foreign borders. They include air, land, sea, or rail transportation channels. At this stage, in addition to transportation methods, intermediaries are selected (e.g., agents or trading companies), and financing and risk management decisions are reached.
Question No : 35
Managerial attitudes toward global operations are viewed by researcher HowardPerl mutteras a key to understanding multinational firms. An ethnocentric attitude is indicated by:
A. An identification with the nationality of the host country.
B. Collaboration between the firm’s subsidiaries and the firm’s central administration.
C. A high volume of information flow in the form of orders and advice to subsidiaries.
D. A staffing emphasis on finding and developing the best people in the world for key positions anywhere in the firm.
Answer: C
Explanation:
An ethnocentric attitude assumes that the home country’s people, practices, and ideas are superior to all others. Thus, the firm’s identification is with the owner’s nationality. Authority and decision making are centralized, so communication is likely to involve a high volume of information flow in the form of orders and advice to subsidiaries. Moreover, home-country
standards are apt to be used for performance evaluation of entities and individuals. Also, this ethnocentric attitude is perpetuated by recruiting and developing home-country individuals for key posts throughout the firm. The advantages of an ethnocentric attitude are simplicity and close control. The disadvantages are social and political problems in foreign countries, poor feedback, ineffective planning, lack of flexibility and innovative thinking, and higher turnover of managers in foreign subsidiaries.

Question No : 36
Managerial attitudes toward global operations are viewed by researcher HowardPerl mutteras a key to understanding multinational firms. A polycentric attitude is indicated by
A. An identification with the nationality of the owner.
B. Evaluation and control standards that are both local and global.
C. High information flow in multiple directions.
D. Relatively little decision making by the central administrative authority.
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Answer: D
Explanation:
A polycentric attitude assumes that cultural differences require local managers to make most decisions because they are more knowledgeable about local conditions than are central administrators. Thus, development of local managerial talent is crucial. Another result is that foreign operating performance is primarily evaluated based on results. As a consequence,methods, training, and incentives vary significantly among subsidiaries. Furthermore, control is predominantly local, the firm is identified with the nationality of the host nation, and relatively little communication occurs with central administration or among subsidiaries. One disadvantage is that local operations may have inefficiencies because of duplication of activities. Another disadvantage is loss of goal congruence between local entities and the firm as a whole. Advantages are more capable and motivated local managers, better results in local markets, local development of new product ideas, and stronger support by host governments.
Question No : 37
Managerial attitudes toward global operations are viewed by researcher HowardPerl mutteras a key to understanding multinational firms. A geocentric attitude is indicated by
A. An identification with national perspectives even though the firm is genuinely international.
B. Control and evaluation methods that are locally determined.
C. Decision making concentrated in the central administrative authority.
D. Little communication among subsidiaries.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A geocentric attitude is truly internationally oriented while absorbing the best that various cultures offer. It is a completely balanced approach with full collaboration between central administrators and subsidiaries, control and evaluation methods that harmonize local and overall firm standards, and frequent communication in all directions (i.e., between central
administrators and subsidiaries and among subsidiaries). Moreover, talent, not nationality, determines personnel decisions throughout the firm.

Question No : 38 According to research on the international contingency model of leadership, which path goal leadership style is most likely to be accepted around the world as culturally appropriate?
A. Directive.
B. Participative.
C. Supportive.
D. Achievement-oriented.
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Answer: B
Explanation:
A participative style entails consultation with employees and serious attention to their ideas. The participative style, although not always the best, is the most widely accepted internationally. Every country surveyed found it to be culturally acceptable.
Question No : 39
Research on the common characteristics of leaders of global firms found that:
A. Ambition and relentless drive were more significant than honesty and trustworthiness.
B. The leaders tended to have multidisciplinary problem solving ability.
C. Being multilingual was unimportant.
D. Having traveled extensively before entering the working world was relatively uncommon.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A common characteristic of successful leaders of global firms is that they have effective problem- solving skills that draw from a multidisciplinary approach. The best candidates have varied backgrounds and can draw on a multitude of life experiences. They also tend to be flexible and adaptable, have good interpersonal skills, and communicate successfully.
Question No : 40
For a multinational firm, which of the following is a disadvantage of an ethnocentric staffing policy in which all key management positions are filled by parent-company nationals?
A. An ethnocentric staffing policy significantly raises compensation, training, and staffing costs.
B. An ethnocentric staffing policy produces resentment among the firm’s employees in host countries.
C. An ethnocentric staffing policy limits career mobility for parent-country nationals.
D. An ethnocentric staffing policy isolates headquarters from foreign subsidiaries.
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Answer: B
Explanation:
An ethnocentric staffing policy has the advantage that expatriates may understand the objectives, policies, and procedures of the parent firm better than local employees do. However, ethnocentrism in hiring has the following disadvantages, among others:(1) Expatriate managers have difficulty in adapting to a new culture, language, and physical environment;
(2) training and relocation costs may be high;
(3) host-country governments prefer local control;
(4) the morale and performance of host-country employees will suffer.

Question No : 41
Which of the following is a source of communication breakdown within an organization due to a sense of superiority by members of a particular culture?
A. Perceptual problem.
B. Stereotyping.
C. Ethnocentrism.
D. Uncertainty avoidance.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Ethnocentrism is the attitude that one’s own group is superior. It is perpetuated through the value structures and nationalistic spirit of the people.
Question No : 42  Which of the following management orientations is characterized by an organization’s efforts to adapt the product and marketing program to each local environment?
A. Ethnocentric.
B. Polycentric.
C. Geocentric.
D. Fegiocentric.
070-464 exam 
Answer: B
Explanation:
A polycentric attitude assumes that cultural differences require local managers to make most decisions because they are more knowledgeable about local conditions than are central administrators. Thus, development of local managerial talent is crucial. Another result is that foreign operating performance is primarily evaluated based on results. As a consequence, methods, training, and incentives vary significantly among subsidiaries. Furthermore, control is predominantly local, the firm is identified with the nationality of the host nation, and relatively little communication occurs with central administration or among subsidiaries. One disadvantage is that local operations may have inefficiencies because of duplication of activities. Another disadvantage is loss of goal congruence between local entities and the firm as a whole. Advantages are more capable and motivated local managers, better results in local markets, local development of new product ideas, and stronger support by host governments. Accordingly, the polycentric attitude adapts to each local environment.
Question No : 43
According to research on path-goal leadership styles done in many countries, which styles are neither the most nor the least accepted internationally?
I. Directive
II. Supportive
III. Participative
IV. Achievement-oriented
A. land II.
B. land Ill.
C. II and IV.
D. Ill and IV.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The participative style, although not always the best, is the most widely accepted internationally. The directive style is the least accepted internationally. It was not deemed appropriate in the U.S., U.K., Canada, Australia, Germany, and Sweden. Theachievement orientedstyle was found unacceptable in such countries as Brazil, France, Italy, and Japan. The supportive style was not accepted in such countries as Brazil, France, India, and Sweden.
Question No : 44
With the globalization of economies, many organizations have expanded their operations to international locations. As an advisor to management, an internal auditor will most likelyrecommend that a geocentric, or worldwide, attitude be adopted. Select the reason the geocentric attitude is preferred.
A. It promotes a simpler organizational structure.
B. It provides greater autonomy for host country managers.
C. It provides the best balance of local and worldwide objectives.
D. It promotes tighter organizational control.
70-464 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
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Deploying Enterprise Voice with Skype for Business 2015 (70-333) Exam

  • Plan and design Skype for Business with Enterprise Voice (30-35%)
  • Deploy and configure Enterprise Voice (30-35%)
  • Manage and troubleshoot Enterprise Voice (30-35%)

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Most up-to-date Q&A.

QUESTION 1
You need to plan the subnets for Call Admission Control (CAC) and media bypass.
Which subnet or subnets should you use for each office?
To answer, drag the appropriate subnet or subnets to the correct office in the answer area.
Each subnet may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between
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QUESTION 2
You need to configure the trunks defined in the Skype for Business topology based on the requirements. Which two
actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Enable media bypass.
B. Enable centralized media processing.
C. Set Encryption Support Level to required.
D. Disable REFER support.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
Contoso, Ltd., has five offices. The offices are configured as shown in the exhibit. Click the Exhibit button.

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Each office has a local connection to the public switched telephone network (PSTN). The peak usage statistics are
shown in the following table:

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Every audio call consumes 100 kilobits per second (Kbps).
You plan to replace the PSTN connection with a centralized SIP trunking service. The service will contain a Sip trunk in
the Seattle office and a SIP trunk in the Amsterdam office.
The solution must use least cost routing.
You need to calculate the maximum amount of bandwidth that will be used by each SIP trunk.
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QUESTION 4
You have a Skype for Business Server 2015 infrastructure. The infrastructure contains three servers. The servers are
configured as shown in the following table:

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You plan to provide users with the ability to use desktop sharing and to display Microsoft PowerPoint presentations
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QUESTION 5
You need replace the existing automatic call distribution (ACD) helpdesk with Skype for Business Server 2015 solution.
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References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/skypeforbusiness/plan-your-deployment/enterprise-voicesolution/response-group https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/skypeforbusiness/deploy/deploy-enterprise-voice/deploymentprocess-for-response-group

QUESTION 6
You need to allocate the current average amount of bandwidth that is required for peer-topeer (P2P) voice calls for all
three sites. How much bandwidth in kilobits per second (Kbps) should you allocate?
A. 36,960 Kbps
B. 51,150 Kbps
C. 80,025 Kbps
D. 135,795 Kbps
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You need to enable all users for voice mail.
Which three configuration steps are required to configure the environment for Exchange Unified Messaging? Each
correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Run the OcsUMUtil executable on the Skype for Business server.
B. Run ExchUCUtil.ps1 on the Exchange server.
C. Run the New-CsHostingProvider Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlet.
D. Run the New-CsHostedVoicemailPolicy Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlet.
E. Apply the hosted voice mail policy to all users.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
Remote users report that they fail to access their voice mail by using the Call Voice Mail option in the Skype tor
Business client. Remote users can access voice mail by using the subscriber access number. Internal users do not
report any
issues accessing voice mail.
You need to enable voice mail access without manually dialing the subscriber number.
Which two sets of ports should you open? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. TCP 443 and UDP 3478 on the external firewall
B. TCP 5062 and 8057 on the internal firewall.
C. TCP 443 and UDP 3478 on the internal firewall
D. UDP 50,000 to 59,999 on the internal firewall
E. UDP 50,000 to 59,999 on the external firewall
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
A company has offices in Montreal and New York. The company has an existing phone system. The company plans to
migrate to Skype for Business 2015.
Users dial number 3 followed by a four-digit extension to reach users in the other office. The company would like to
keep the same user experience after they migrate to Skype for Business 2015.
You to create a dial plan that allows users to dial between the two offices.
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QUESTION 10
You need to implement voice resiliency for international calls.
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QUESTION 11
A company implements Enterprise Voice. All users are assigned a direct inward dialing (DID) phone number.
Due to the increased fees for direct inward dialing (DID) phone ranges, the company must make the following changes:
[email protected] You need to implement a solution.
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Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-333 exam questions q11-2

QUESTION 12
You need to recommend a solution that will improve voice quality for Skype for Business clients. What should you
recommend?
A. Change the Voice802lp value to 46.
B. Ensure that VoiceDiffservtag values are set to 46 for all Skype for Business Phone Edition devices at all sites.
C. Configure an Audio and Video Quality of Service (QoS) to use a DSCP value of 40 and a port range of 57501:65535.
D. Configure a Domain Group Policy object (GPO) configuring Quality of Service (QoS) and set it to Enforced for all
Windows 7 clients.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Your company has three offices.

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The network is configured as shown in the exhibit. Click the Exhibit button. You have a Skype for Business Server 2015
infrastructure. All of the Skype for Business Server components are located in the Amsterdam office. The conference
call will contain the attendees shown in the following table:
Each audio call consumes 100 kilobits per second (Kbps).
You need to allocate network bandwidth for each attendee location.
How much bandwidth should you allocate for each attendee location? To answer, drag the appropriate bandwidth
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Exam B
QUESTION 1
You are the accounts payable manager in a European subsidiary of your company. Your company purchases goods from a vendor that is not located in Europe. The vendor did not charge sales tax on the invoice but the customs office sends an
invoice because the goods crossed the border and the company declared them at customs. What should you do?
A. Report sales tax on the imported goods.
B. Report withholding sales tax on the imported goods.
C. Report conditional sales tax on the imported goods
D. Report sales tax exemption on the imported goods.
MB6-893 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A financial controller wants to match the total amounts on an invoice to the total amounts on a pur-chase order. Which type of matching should the controller use?
A. Two-way matching
B. Not required
C. Charges matching
D. Three-way matching
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
In Microsoft Dynamics AX Financial, which of the following statements about depreciation for assets that have not yet been acquired is true? (Choose all that apply.)
A. You cannot post depreciation for the assets.
B. You can post depreciation for the assets by using depreciation proposals.
C. You can post depreciation for the assets by using the depreciation books journal.
D. You can generate depreciation for the assets by using depreciation proposals and specifying a future posting date.
MB6-893  dumps Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
You are an accounts receivable manager. Your company levies a fine with a high-interest premium on a customer’s overdue amount. The customer disputes this fine and succeeds. You need to waive the fine in Microsoft Dynamics AX Financial. What should you do?
A. Print/Post Interest notes.
B. Create an interest adjustment.
C. Print/Post Collection letter notes.
D. Generate a customer account statement.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You set up an asset in Microsoft Dynamics AX Financial. What is the initial status of the value model?
A. Open
B. Closed
C. Suspended
D. Not yet acquired
MB6-893  pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You need to automatically create a fixed asset from a purchase order when an invoice is posted. In Microsoft Dynamics AX Financial, which of the following actions should you perform?
A. Configure the fixed asset posting profile.
B. Configure the fixed asset acquisition methods.
C. Select the Allow asset acquisition from Purchasing fixed asset parameter.
D. Select the Check for fixed assets creation during line entry fixed asset parameter.
E. Select the Create asset during product receipt or invoice posting fixed asset parameter.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
You need to create a new fixed asset and assign a depreciation profile.
You want this fixed asset to be depreciated by the same percentage in each depreciation period.
Which depreciation method should be set in the depreciation profile?
A. factor
B. manual
C. reducing balance
D. straight line service life
MB6-893  vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You are the accounting manager at your company. Recently, the company started conducting business with a customer in a different location. You need to create setup procedures that can be used to report sales taxes to the government of this location. What should you do?
A. Set up sales-tax payable.
B. Set up sales-tax authorities.
C. Set up sales-tax receivable.
D. Set up use-tax payable.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Your company receives several invoices on which the sales lax amount differs from what Microsoft Dynamics AX Financial calculates automatically. To make the sales tax amounts match the invoices, you need to revise the sales tax amount on a transaction before posting. What are the three types of revisions that you can perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Enter a correction of the sales tax amount in the “Actual sales tax amount” field for a selected sales tax code line.
B. Enter an adjustment amount in the “Actual sales tax charge” field if the transaction has several sales tax code lines.
C. Enter adjustments to the use tax amount in the “Total actual sales tax amount” field if the sales tax code line applies to use taxes.
D. Enter adjustments to the use tax amount in the “Actual sales tax charge” field if the sales tax code line applies to use taxes.
E. Enter an adjustment amount in the “Total actual sales tax amount” field if the transaction has several sales tax code lines.
MB6-893 exam Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
You need to create recurring free text invoice template. Which three recurrence patterns are available in the Recurring invoices form on the customer record? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Monthly
B. Weeldy
C. Yearly
D. Quarterly
E. Hourly
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 11
You are an accounts payable manager. Your company buys office supplies from an out-of-state vendor. The vendor charges 100.00 USD for the supplies and no tax. The company may still owe taxes to the sales tax authority in its own state. You need to define the ledger account to manage these transactions. Which account group should you choose?
A. use-tax payable
B. use-tax expense
C. sales-tax receivable
D. sales-tax payable
MB6-893 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are the credit and collections manager at your company. You set up an aging period definition based on your company’s standard collections terms of 0, 90, and 180 days. Earlier this week, you had a telephone call with the customer about the invoices on their account that are overdue. During the call, the customer promised to pay the dues. Which three actions should you perform to manage the collection process in the system? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Send an email to the customer, including the statement.
B. Process non-sufficient funds (NSF).
C. Perform Write-Offs.
D. Change the status of invoices against the customer to “Promise to pay.
E. Update aging snapshot.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 13
You are the director of finance. You are starting to create budgets for the fiscal year and want to generate budget plans from prior year expenses. However, this year, you know your expenses will be more than last. Which field should you set in the generate budget plan from the general ledger form to account for this increase in budget?
A. Minimum
B. Percent
C. Factor
D. Rounding rule
MB6-893 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
You are an accounts payable clerk. You receive an invoice of 1,000 USD from a vendor. You need to transfer it to an invoice approval pool for the assigned manager to approve before you post the invoice. Which type of invoice should you use?
A. vendor invoice
B. invoice journal
C. voucher template
D. invoice register
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
What are the three advanced collection management tasks that are performed in Microsoft Dynamics AX Financial to manage collections? Each correct answer presents the part of the solution.
A. waive, reinstate, or reverse interest and fees
B. create write-off transactions
C. set up interest codes
D. set up Customer pool
E. process non-sufficient funds (NSF) payments
MB6-893  vce Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 16
You are an accounts receivable manager. You need to generate a document that you can send to for a period. What should you do?
A. Generate an internal accounts statement.
B. Generate a report for customer transactions.
C. Generate a collection letter note.
D. Generate a customer accounts statement.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Your customer needs to set up Fixed assets and treat them as though they were purchased and placed in service at the mid-point of the first year, no matter when during that year the purchase was actually made. Which depreciation convention should you use when creating the depreciation profile?
A. full month
B. half year
C. mid quarter
D. mid month
MB6-893  exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your company creates a bank account for U.S. payroll disbursements. You need to configure the new bank account in Microsoft Dynamics AX Financial and configure the check layout. You notice the date is printing in DD-MM-YYYY
format, and you are not able to change the date format on the check layout form. What determines the format of the date?
A. bank group on the bank groups form
B. check form setting on the check layout form
C. bank on the bank account form
D. vendor on the vendor form
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
You are creating a budget register entry. You notice that a manual budget reservation will exceed the budget.
What should you do within the budget register entry to satisfy the over-budget condition?
A. enter recurrence
B. transfer balances
C. allocate across periods
D. allocate across dimensions
MB6-893  dumps Correct Answer: A

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Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012.The domain contains an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. OU1 contains an OU named OU2. OU2 contains a user named User1. User1 is the member of a group named Group1. Group1 is in the Users container. You create five Group Policy objects (GPO). The GPOs are configured as shown in the following table.
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Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computers run Windows 8. Group Policy objects (GPOs) are linked to the domain as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 and Server2 have the Hyper-V server role installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
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HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named fabrikam.com.
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Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 is configured as a Network Policy Server (NPS) server and as a DHCP server. You need to log all DHCP clients that have windows Firewall disabled. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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DRAG DROP
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains an Active Directory site named Site1 and an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. The domain contains a client computer named Client1 that is located in OU1 and Site1. You create five Group Policy objects (GPO). The GPOs are configured as shown in the following table.
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Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 and a member server named Server1. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature on Server1. From the Provision IPAM wizard, you select the Group Policy Based provisioning method and enter a GPO name prefix of IPAM1. You need to provision IPAM by using Group Policy. What command should you run on Server1 to complete the process? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All file servers in the domain run Windows Server 2012 R2. The computer accounts of the file servers are in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to OU1. You plan to modify the NTFS permissions for many folders on the file servers by using central access policies. You need to identify any users who will be denied access to resources that they can currently access once the new permissions are implemented. In which order should you Perform the five actions?
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a file server named Server1. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. All domain user accounts have the Division attribute automatically populated as part of the user provisioning process. The Support for Dynamic Access Control and Kerberos armoring policy is enabled for the domain.
You need to control access to the file shares on Server1 based on the values in the Division attribute and the Division resource property. Which three actions should you perform in sequence?
Select and Place:
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70-417 exam Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
You plan to deploy a failover cluster that will contain two nodes that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to configure a witness disk for the failover cluster. How should you configure the witness disk? To answer, drag the appropriate configurations to the correct location or locations. Each configuration may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Your network contains four servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Each server has the Failover Clustering feature installed. Each server has three network adapters installed. An iSCSI SAN is available on the network. You create a failover cluster named Cluster1. You add the servers to the cluster. You plan to configure the network settings of each server node as shown in the following table.
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You need to configure the network settings for Cluster1.
What should you do?
To answer, drag the appropriate network communication setting to the correct cluster network or networks. Each network communication setting may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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70-417 dumps Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
You have a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The folders on Server1 are configured as shown in the following table.
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A new corporate policy states that backups must use Windows Azure Online Backup whenever possible. You need to identify which technology you must use to back up Server1. The solution must use Windows Azure Online Backup whenever possible. What should you identify? To answer, drag the appropriate backup type to the correct location or locations. Each backup type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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70-417 pdf Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 14
HOTSPOT
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The volumes on Server1 are configured as shown in the following table.
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A new corporate policy states that backups must use Windows Azure Backup whenever possible. You need to identify which backup methods you must use to back up Server1. The solution must use Windows Azure Backup whenever possible. Which backup type should you identify for each volume? To answer, select the appropriate backup type for each volume in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
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Published: September 21, 2012
Languages: English, Chinese (Simplified), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil)
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Windows Server 2012 R2
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA, MCSE

Preparation options

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QUESTION 97
In order to highlight to management the importance of network security, the security manager should FIRST:
A. develop a security architecture.
B. install a network intrusion detection system (NIDS) and prepare a list of attacks.
C. develop a network security policy.
D. conduct a risk assessment.
70-695 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A risk assessment would be most helpful to management in understanding at a very high level the threats, probabilities and existing controls. Developing a security architecture, installing a network intrusion detection system (NIDS) and preparing a list of attacks on the network and developing a network security policy would not be as effective in highlighting the importance to management and would follow only after performing a risk assessment.

QUESTION 98
When developing an information security program, what is the MOST useful source of information for determining available resources?
A. Proficiency test
B. Job descriptions
C. Organization chart
D. Skills inventory
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A skills inventory would help identify- the available resources, any gaps and the training requirements for
  developing resources. Proficiency testing is useful but only with regard to specific technical skills. Job descriptions would not be as useful since they may be out of date or not sufficiently detailed. An organization chart would not provide the details necessary to determine the resources required for this activity.

QUESTION 99
The MOST important characteristic of good security policies is that they:
A. state expectations of IT management.
B. state only one general security mandate.
C. are aligned with organizational goals.
D. govern the creation of procedures and guidelines.
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Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The most important characteristic of good security policies is that they be aligned with organizational goals. Failure to align policies and goals significantly reduces the value provided by the policies. Stating expectations of IT management omits addressing overall organizational goals and objectives. Stating only one general security mandate is the next best option since policies should be clear; otherwise, policies may be confusing and difficult to understand. Governing the creation of procedures and guidelines is most relevant to information security standards.

QUESTION 100
An information security manager must understand the relationship between information security and business operations in order to:
A. support organizational objectives.
B. determine likely areas of noncompliance.
C. assess the possible impacts of compromise.
D. understand the threats to the business.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Security exists to provide a level of predictability for operations, support for the activities of the organization and to ensure preservation of the organization. Business operations must be the driver for security activities in order to set meaningful objectives, determine and manage the risks to those activities, and provide a basis to measure the effectiveness of and provide guidance to the security program. Regulatory compliance may or may not be an organizational requirement. If compliance is a requirement, some level of compliance must be supported but compliance is only one aspect. It is necessary to understand the business goals in order to assess potential impacts and evaluate threats. These are some of the ways in which security supports organizational objectives, but they are not the only ways.

QUESTION 101
The MOST effective approach to address issues that arise between IT management, business units and security management when implementing a new security strategy is for the information security manager to:
A. escalate issues to an external third party for resolution.
B. ensure that senior management provides authority for security to address the issues.
C. insist that managers or units not in agreement with the security solution accept the risk.
D. refer the issues to senior management along with any security recommendations.
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Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Senior management is in the best position to arbitrate since they will look at the overall needs of the business in reaching a decision. The authority may be delegated to others by senior management after their review of the issues and security recommendations. Units should not be asked to accept the risk without first receiving input from senior management.

QUESTION 102
Obtaining senior management support for establishing a warm site can BEST be accomplished by:
A. establishing a periodic risk assessment.
B. promoting regulatory requirements.
C. developing a business case.
D. developing effective metrics.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Business case development, including a cost-benefit analysis, will be most persuasive to management. A risk assessment may be included in the business ease, but by itself will not be as effective in gaining management support. Informing management of regulatory requirements may help gain support for initiatives, but given that more than half of all organizations are not in compliance with regulations, it is unlikely to be sufficient in many cases. Good metrics which provide assurance that initiatives are meeting organizational goals will also be useful, but are insufficient in gaining management support.

QUESTION 103
Which of the following would be the BEST option to improve accountability for a system administrator who has security functions?
A. Include security responsibilities in the job description
B. Require the administrator to obtain security certification
C. Train the system administrator on penetration testing and vulnerability assessment
D. Train the system administrator on risk assessment
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The first step to improve accountability is to include security responsibilities in a job description. This documents what is expected and approved by the organization. The other choices are methods to ensure that the system administrator has the training to fulfill the responsibilities included in the job description.

QUESTION 104
Which of the following is the MOST important element of an information security strategy?
A. Defined objectives
B. Time frames for delivery
C. Adoption of a control framework
D. Complete policies
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Without defined objectives, a strategy–the plan to achieve objectives–cannot be developed. Time frames for delivery are important but not critical for inclusion in the strategy document. Similarly, the adoption of a control framework is not critical to having a successful information security strategy. Policies are developed subsequent to, and as a part of, implementing a strategy.

QUESTION 105
A multinational organization operating in fifteen countries is considering implementing an information security program. Which factor will MOST influence the design of the Information security program?
A. Representation by regional business leaders
B. Composition of the board
C. Cultures of the different countries
D. IT security skills

70-695 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Culture has a significant impact on how information security will be implemented. Representation by regional business leaders may not have a major influence unless it concerns cultural issues. Composition of the board may not have a significant impact compared to cultural issues. IT security skills are not as key or high impact in designing a multinational information security program as would be cultural issues.

QUESTION 106
Which of the following is the BEST justification to convince management to invest in an information security program?
A. Cost reduction
B. Compliance with company policies
C. Protection of business assets
D. Increased business value
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Investing in an information security program should increase business value and confidence. Cost reduction by itself is rarely the motivator for implementing an information security program. Compliance is secondary to business value. Increasing business value may include protection of business assets.

QUESTION 107
On a company’s e-commerce web site, a good legal statement regarding data privacy should include:
A. a statement regarding what the company will do with the information it collects.
B. a disclaimer regarding the accuracy of information on its web site.
C. technical information regarding how information is protected.
D. a statement regarding where the information is being hosted.
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Most privacy laws and regulations require disclosure on how information will be used. A disclaimer is not necessary since it does not refer to data privacy. Technical details regarding how information is protected are not mandatory to publish on the web site and in fact would not be desirable. It is not mandatory to say where information is being hosted.

QUESTION 108
The MOST important factor in ensuring the success of an information security program is effective:
A. communication of information security requirements to all users in the organization.
B. formulation of policies and procedures for information security.
C. alignment with organizational goals and objectives .
D. monitoring compliance with information security policies and procedures.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The success of security programs is dependent upon alignment with organizational goals and objectives. Communication is a secondary step. Effective communication and education of users is a critical determinant of success but alignment with organizational goals and objectives is the most important factor for success. Mere formulation of policies without effective communication to users will not ensure success. Monitoring compliance with information security policies and procedures can be, at best, a detective mechanism that will not lead to success in the midst of uninformed users.

QUESTION 109
Which of the following would be MOST helpful to achieve alignment between information security and organization objectives?
A. Key control monitoring
B. A robust security awareness program
C. A security program that enables business activities
D. An effective security architecture
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Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A security program enabling business activities would be most helpful to achieve alignment between information security and organization objectives. All of the other choices are part of the security program and would not individually and directly help as much as the security program.

QUESTION 110
Which of the following BEST contributes to the development of a security governance framework that supports the maturity model concept?
A. Continuous analysis, monitoring and feedback
B. Continuous monitoring of the return on security investment (ROSD
C. Continuous risk reduction
D. Key risk indicator (KRD setup to security management processes
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To improve the governance framework and achieve a higher level of maturity, an organization needs to conduct continuous analysis, monitoring and feedback compared to the current state of maturity. Return on security investment (ROSD may show the performance result of the security-related activities; however, the result is interpreted in terms of money and extends to multiple facets of security initiatives. Thus, it may not be an adequate option. Continuous risk reduction would demonstrate the effectiveness of the security governance framework, but does not indicate a higher level of maturity. Key risk indicator (KRD setup is a tool to be used in internal control assessment. KRI setup presents a threshold to alert management when controls are being compromised in business processes. This is a control tool rather than a maturity model
  support tool.

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QUESTION NO: 128
Adam, a malicious hacker is sniffing the network to inject ARP packets. He injects broadcast frames onto the wire to conduct Man-in-The-Middle attack. Which of the following is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame?
A. 0xDDDDDDDDD
B. 0x00000000000
C. 0xFFFFFFFFFFFF
D. 0xAAAAAAAAAA
70-741 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 129
Mark works as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. The company uses Check Point SmartDefense to provide security to the network. Mark uses SmartDefense on the HTTP servers of the company to fix the limitation for the maximum response header length. Which of the following attacks can be blocked by defining this limitation?
A. HTR Overflow worms and mutations
B. Ramen worm attack
C. Melissa virus attack
D. Shoulder surfing attack
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 130
Victor works as a professional Ethical Hacker for SecureEnet Inc. He wants to scan the wireless network of the company. He uses a tool that is a free open-source utility for network exploration. The tool uses raw IP packets to determine the following:
What ports are open on our network systems. What hosts are available on the network. Identify unauthorized wireless access points. What services (application name and version) those hosts are offering. What operating systems (and OS versions) they are running. What type of packet filters/firewalls are in use. Which of the following tools is Victor using?
A. NessusB. Kismet
C. Nmap
D. Sniffer
70-741 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 131
Which of the following attacks are examples of Denial-of-service attacks (DoS)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Fraggle attack
B. Smurf attack
C. Birthday attack
D. Ping flood attack
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 132
Andrew, a bachelor student of Faulkner University, creates a gmail account. He uses ‘Faulkner’ as the password for the gmail account. After a few days, he starts receiving a lot of e-mails stating that his gmail account has been hacked. He also finds that some of his important mails have been deleted by someone. Which of the following methods has the attacker used to crack Andrew’s password? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Denial-of-service (DoS) attack
B. Zero-day attack
C. Brute force attack
D. Social engineering
E. Buffer-overflow attack
F. Rainbow attack
G. Password guessing
H. Dictionary-based attack
70-741 pdf Answer: C,D,F,G,H
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 133
Which of the following are the automated tools that are used to perform penetration testing? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Pwdump
B. Nessus
C. EtherApe
D. GFI LANguard
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 134
Firekiller 2000 is an example of a .
A. Security software disabler Trojan
B. DoS attack Trojan
C. Data sending Trojan
D. Remote access Trojan
70-741 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 135
You are an Incident manager in Orangesect.Inc. You have been tasked to set up a new extension of your enterprise. The networking, to be done in the new extension, requires different types of cables and an appropriate policy that will be decided by you. Which of the following stages in the Incident handling process involves your decision making?
A. Identification
B. Containment
C. Eradication
D. Preparation
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 136
Which of the following statements about Ping of Death attack is true?
A. In this type of attack, a hacker sends more traffic to a network address than the buffer can handle.
B. This type of attack uses common words in either upper or lower case to find a password.
C. In this type of attack, a hacker maliciously cuts a network cable.
D. In this type of attack, a hacker sends ICMP packets greater than 65,536 bytes to crash a system.
70-741 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 137
Which of the following can be used as a Trojan vector to infect an information system?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. NetBIOS remote installation
B. Any fake executable
C. Spywares and adware
D. ActiveX controls, VBScript, and Java scripts
Answer: A,B,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 138
Which of the following tools can be used as penetration tools in the Information system auditing process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Nmap
B. Snort
C. SARA
D. Nessus
70-741 dumps Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 139
You discover that your network routers are being flooded with broadcast packets that have the return address of one of the servers on your network. This is resulting in an overwhelming amount of traffic going back to that server and flooding it. What is this called?
A. Syn flood
B. Blue jacking
C. Smurf attack
D. IP spoofing
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 140
What is the purpose of configuring a password protected screen saver on a computer?
A. For preventing unauthorized access to a system.
B. For preventing a system from a Denial of Service (DoS) attack.
C. For preventing a system from a social engineering attack.
D. For preventing a system from a back door attack.
70-741 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:

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Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions
Q&As: 131

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QUESTION 84
You need to add markup at line AM10 to set the minimum app permissions for the FranchiseMonitor app.
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Which code segments should you include in Target 1 and Target 2 to complete the code? (To answer, select the appropriate options from each drop-down list in the answer area.)
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70-488 exam Explanation
QUESTION 85
You need to configure the credential store for the app. Which properties should you configure? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Pin
B. Windows Password
C. Windows User Name
D. Password
E. User Name
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
From scenario:
* A client asks you to create a basic task tracking app for SharePoint. The app will be hosted remotely
* Remote users will authenticate to the app by using a username and password.
QUESTION 86
You need to deploy the package.
Which file should you select?
A. the file ending in .publish
B. the file ending in .wsp
C. the file ending in .dll
D. the file ending in .app
70-488 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 87
You receive an error when you deploy the app.
You need to resolve the error.
What should you do?
A. Deploy the app to
B. Enable side-loading of apps in the Visual Studio project properties.
C. Deploy the app to
D. Deploy the app to
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 88
You need to implement term set navigation. Which code segment should you insert at line TN16?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-488 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 89
You need to validate that specific users can delete tasks. Which code segment should you insert at line CD04?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION: 90
Numbers are stored in a string field in your database. To perform numeric calculations on this field, the data must be converted to a number. Which formula will correctly convert the data?
A. If IsNumber ({Table.Field}) Then ConvertNumber ({Table.Field}) Else 0
B. If IsNumber ({Table.Field}) Then ToNumber ({Table.Field}) Else 0
C. If NumericText ({Table.Field}) Then ToNumber ({Table.Field}) Else 0
D. If NumericText ({Table.Field}) Then ConvertNumber ({Table.Field}) Else 0

70-488 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 91
Which two statements are true regarding hyperlinking in Crystal Reports 2008? (Choose two.)
A. The source and target report parameter lists must be identical.
B. The hyperlinking GUI will automatically pick up parameters in the target report.
C. Only Boolean parameters are allowed when linking a source report to a target report.
D. The report developer can define a constant as the input to a target report parameter.
Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 92
You want to see a list of formulas containing references to a specific field. Which three methods can you use? (Choose three.)
A. In the Formula Editor, right click on the field and choose Find in Formulas.
B. In the Preview Pane, right click on the field and choose Find in Formulas.
C. In the Formula Editor, select the field and press Alt-D to open Global Formula Search.
D. In the Preview Pane, select the field and press Alt-D to open Global Formula Search.
70-488 exam Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION: 93
You configure a database connection which you use regularly for your reports. In which folder should you save the connection to make it easy to access?
A. Repository
B. Current Connections
C. History
D. Favorites
Answer: D
QUESTION: 94
Which two sections are displayed when the Crystal Reports Design window first opens? (Choose two.)
A. Page Footer
B. Formula Footer
C. Group Footer
D. Report Footer
70-488 dumps Answer: A, D
QUESTION: 95
The Sales department has a report listing the two sales channels, Direct and Indirect. There is a grand total for all sales at the end of the report. There is however also a requirement for a grandtotal for each channel. Which method should you use to provide the total for each channel?
A. Create 2 running totals, evaluating on the relevant channel, and place them in the report header.
B. Create 2 running totals, evaluating on the relevant channel, and place them in the group header.
C. Create 2 running totals, evaluating on the relevant channel, and place them in the report footer.
D. Create 2 running totals, evaluating on the relevant channel, and place them in the group footer.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 96
You have legacy data in a proprietary database. Which two ways can you connect to the data for reporting? (Choose two.)
A. ODBC driver
B. HTML driver
C. Web Services
D. Crystal Reports Gateway
70-488 pdf Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 97
You want to save a report that you have not run with data. There are no subreports. Which procedure should you use to save the report data?
A. From the Preview tab, select Save As and save the report.
B. From the Design tab, select Save As and save the report.
C. From the Design tab, select Save Data with Report and save the report.
D. From the Preview tab, select Save Data with Report and save the report.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 98
You want to use a Cross-Tab to see the difference in Canada’s sales versus USA’s sales. Which method should you use in Crystal Reports 2008 if the field does not exist?
A. Use a calculated member.
B. Use a parameter field within the Cross-Tab.
C. Insert a Sum summary for Canada’s sales.
D. Insert a custom group as a Cross-Tab member.
70-488 vce Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Q&As: 424

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QUESTION: 1
Your company has developed a service that allows your customers to check the status of an order. The schema for the service is shown here: A new customer plans to use your service, but they want to test it first. They have asked for two sample XML documents that show typical input and output message content. Which of the following pairs of XML elements will validate with the schema shown above?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-412 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 2
A partner organization has given you samples of XML documents retrieved from their product information database. The three samples they have sent you are:
Because they are an important partner, you have agreed to write a service to accept
XML documents in their format. However, they did not send you a schema, so you are tasked with defining a schema that will correctly validate their documents. Which of the following XML schemas will successfully validate each of the above XML document fragments?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B
QUESTION: 3
Your company has developed a PO service that allows customers to submit purchase order documents. The message sent by a customer must be based on a predefined “purchaseOrder” element and the message received by the customer is based on a
“messageAcknowledgement” element. These two elements are defined in the following two separate XML Schema definitions: The “purchaseOrder.xsd” schema:
  Note that these two schemas have different namespaces. That is because the “purchaseOrder.xsd” schema is specific to purchase order-related functions, while the “ack.xsd” schema is more generic and used for a variety of different purposes.
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-412 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 4
Your developer is asked to build a Timesheet service that is able to receive timesheet submissions for an internal payroll system. Service consumers need to be able to send this service request message based on a root “employeeHours” element within the SOAP message body. The “employeeHourse” element will contain “ernpID” and “hours” child elements. Furthermore, the service needs to return a message based on a “response” element that contains “empID” and “status” child elements. Your developer comes to you with the following WSDL definition:
 The only revision you suggest is that the value of the “style” attribute of the “soap: binding” element be changed to “document” instead of “rpc”. Why?
A. With a value of “rpc”, the root element within the SOAP message body will have the name of the operation, and therefore cannot be named “employeeHours” as indicated by the requirements.
B. With a value of “rpc”, the root element within the SOAP message body is unable to be part of an operation that contains both “input” and “output” elements.
C. The value of “rpc” is not a valid value for the “style” attribute.
D. None of the above.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 5
You are a consultant helping a large bank implement an on-line banking service for its customers. The first operation you need to build is one that allows a customer to initiate a transfer of funds. You are presented with the following sample XML document that represents the funds transfer information that this operation needs to be able to receive:
<transfer>
< fromAccount>12345 </fromAccount>
< toAccount>44432 </toAccount>
<amount>2000</amount>
</transfer>
You are also provided with the following sample that shows that the response message sent by the service needs to return a single element with text content:
<transferStatus>SUCCESS</transferStatus>
Which of the following XML schemas will validate the two samples shown above?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
70-412 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 6
You want to enable key archiving on a CA. You need to issue a certificate from a specific template to the user who will recover private keys. Which certificate template will you use as the basis for this certificate?
A. Kerberos authentication
B. Code signing
C. OCSP response signing
D. Key recovery agent
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
You are employed as a senior network administrator at ABC.com. ABC.com has an Active Directory domain named ABC.com. All servers on the ABC.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. ABC.com has two servers,named SERVER1 and SERVER2 which are configured in a two- node failover cluster. Server1 includes a folder,named ABCAppData,which is configured as a Distributed File System (DFS) name space folder target. After configuring another two nodes in the failover cluster, you are instructed to make sure that access to ABC AppData is highly available. You also have to make sure that application data is replicated to ABCAppData via DFS replication. Which following actions should you take ?
A. You should consider configuring a scale-out File Server
B. You should consider configuring the replication settings for the cluster
C. You should consider configuring a file server for general use
D. You should consider configuring the Quorum settings
70-412 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains two domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-412 dumps

The Branch site contains a perimeter network. For security reasons, client computers in the perimeter network can communicate with client computers in the Branch site only. You plan to deploy a new RODC to the perimeter network in the Branch site. You need to ensure that the new RODC will be able to replicate from DC10. What should you do first on DC10?
A. Run dcpromo and specify the /createdcaccount parameter.
B. Run the Active Directory Domain Services Configuration Wizard.

C. Run the Add-ADDSReadOnlyDomainControllerAccount cmdlet.
D. Enable the Bridge all site links setting.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012. One of the domain controllers is named DC1. The DNS zone for the contoso.com zone is Active Directory-integrated and has the default settings. A server named Server1 is a DNS server that runs a UNIX-based operating system. You plan to use Server1 as a secondary DNS server for the contoso.com zone. You need to ensure that Server1 can host a secondary copy of the contoso.com zone. What should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsServerForwarder cmdlet and specify the contoso.com zone as a target.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsServerSetting cmdlet and specify DC1 as a target.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-DnsServerPrimaryZone cmdlet and specify the contoso.com zone as a target.
D. From DNS Manager, modify the Advanced settings of DC1.
70-412 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1. A Microsoft Azure Backup of Server1 is created automatically every day. You rename Server1 to Server2. you discover that backups are no longer created in Azure. You need to backup the server to Azure.What should you do?
A. From the Azure Management Portal, upload the Server2 certificae as a management certificate.
B. On Server2, run the Start-OBRegistration cmdlet.
C. On Server2, run the Add-WBBackupTarget cmdlet.
D. From the Azure Management Portal, modify the configuration on the backup vault.
Correct Answer: B

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