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QUESTION 1
What method should I use to author automation if I want to wait for a CloudFormation stack to finish completing in a
script?
A. Event subscription using SQS.
B. Event subscription using SNS.
C. Poll using ListStacks / list-stacks.
D. Poll using GetStackStatus / get-stack-status.
Correct Answer: C
Event driven systems are good for IFTTT logic, but only polling will make a script wait to complete. ListStacks / liststacks is a real method, GetStackStatus / get-stack-status is not. Reference:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/cli/latest/reference/cloudformation/list-stacks.html


QUESTION 2
A company has multiple development groups working in a single shared AWS account. The Senior Manager of the
groups wants to be alerted via a third-party API call when the creation of resources approaches the service limits for the
account.
Which solution will accomplish this with the LEAST amount of development effort?
A. Create an Amazon CloudWatch Event rule that runs periodically and targets an AWS Lambda function. Within the
Lambda function, evaluate the current state of the AWS environment and compare deployed resource values to
resource limits on the account. Notify the Senior Manager if the account is approaching a service limit.
B. Deploy an AWS Lambda function that refreshes AWS Trusted Advisor checks, and configure an Amazon
CloudWatch Events rule to run the Lambda function periodically. Create another CloudWatch Events rule with an event
pattern matching Trusted Advisor events and a target Lambda function. In the target Lambda function, notify the Senior
Manager.
C. Deploy an AWS Lambda function that refreshes AWS Personal Health Dashboard checks, and configure an Amazon
CloudWatch Events rule to run the Lambda function periodically. Create another CloudWatch Events rule with an event
pattern matching Personal Health Dashboard events and a target Lambda function. In the target Lambda function, notify
the Senior Manager.
D. Add an AWS Config custom rule that runs periodically, checks the AWS service limit status, and streams notifications
to an Amazon SNS topic. Deploy an AWS Lambda function that notifies the Senior Manager, and subscribe the Lambda
function to the SNS topic.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A company runs a three-tier web application in its production environment, which is built on a single AWS
CloudFormation template made up of Amazon EC2 instances behind an ELB Application Load Balancer. The instances
run in an EC2
Auto Scaling group across multiple Availability Zones. Data is stored in an Amazon RDS Multi-AZ DB instance with read
replicas. Amazon Route 53 manages the application\\’s public DNS record. A DevOps Engineer must create a workflow
to
mitigate a failed software deployment by rolling back changes in the production environment when a software cutover
occurs for new application software.
What steps should the Engineer perform to meet these requirements with the LEAST amount of downtime?
A. Use CloudFormation to deploy an additional staging environment and configure the Route 53 DNS with weighted
records. During cutover, change the Route 53 A record weights to achieve an even traffic distribution between the two
environments. Validate the traffic in the new environment and immediately terminate the old environment if tests are
successful.
B. Use a single AWS Elastic Beanstalk environment to deploy the staging and production environments. Update the
environment by uploading the ZIP file with the new application code. Swap the Elastic Beanstalk environment CNAME.
Validate the traffic in the new environment and immediately terminate the old environment if tests are successful.
C. Use a single AWS Elastic Beanstalk environment and an AWS OpsWorks environment to deploy the staging and
production environments. Update the environment by uploading the ZIP file with the new application code into the
Elastic Beanstalk environment deployed with the OpsWorks stack. Validate the traffic in the new environment and
immediately terminate the old environment if tests are successful.
D. Use AWS CloudFormation to deploy an additional staging environment, and configure the Route 53 DNS with
weighted records. During cutover, increase the weight distribution to have more traffic directed to the new staging
environment as workloads are successfully validated. Keep the old production environment in place until the new
staging environment handles all traffic.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What is required to achieve gigabit network throughput on EC2? You already selected cluster-compute, 10GB instances
with enhanced networking, and your workload is already network-bound, but you are not seeing 10 gigabit speeds.
A. Enable biplex networking on your servers, so packets are non-blocking in both directions and there\\’s no switching
overhead.
B. Ensure the instances are in different VPCs so you don\\’t saturate the Internet Gateway on any one VPC.
C. Select PIOPS for your drives and mount several, so you can provision sufficient disk throughput.
D. Use a placement group for your instances so the instances are physically near each other in the same Availability
Zone.
Correct Answer: D
You are not guaranteed 10gigabit performance, except within a placement group. A placement group is a logical
grouping of instances within a single Availability Zone. Using placement groups enables applications to participate in a
low-latency, 10 Gbps network. Placement groups are recommended for applications that benefit from low network
latency, high network throughput, or both. Reference:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSEC2/latest/UserGuide/placementgroups.html

QUESTION 5
A DevOps Engineer is leading the implementation for automating patching of Windows-based workstations in a hybrid
cloud environment by using AWS Systems Manager (SSM). What steps should the Engineer follow to set up Systems
Manager to automate patching in this environment? (Select TWO.)
A. Create multiple IAM service roles for Systems Manager so that the ssm amazonaws.com service can execute the
AssumeRole operation on every instance. Register the role on a per-resource level to enable the creation of a service
token. Perform managed-instance activation with the newly created service role attached to each managed instance.
B. Create an IAM service role for Systems Manager so that the ssm amazonaws.com service can execute the
AssumeRole operation. Register the role to enable the creation of a service token. Perform managed-instance activation
with the newly created service role.
C. Using previously obtained activation codes and activation IDs, download and install the SSM Agent on the hybrid
servers, and register the servers or virtual machines on the Systems Manager service. Hybrid instances will show with
an “mi-” prefix in the SSM console.
D. Using previously obtained activation codes and activation IDs, download and install the SSM Agent on the hybrid
servers, and register the servers or virtual machines on the Systems Manager service. Hybrid instances will show with
an “i-” prefix in the SSM console as if they were provisioned as a regular Amazon EC2 instance.
E. Run AWS Config to create a list of instances that are unpatched and not compliant. Create an instance scheduler job,
and through an AWS Lambda function, perform the instance patching to bring them up to compliance.
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 6
You need to replicate API calls across two systems in real time. What tool should you use as a buffer and transport
mechanism for API call events?
A. AWS SQS
B. AWS Lambda
C. AWS Kinesis
D. AWS SNS
Correct Answer: C
AWS Kinesis is an event stream service. Streams can act as buffers and transport across systems for in-order
programmatic events, making it ideal for replicating API calls across systems. A typical Amazon Kinesis Streams
application reads data from an Amazon Kinesis stream as data records. These applications can use the Amazon
Kinesis Client Library, and they can run on Amazon EC2 instances. The processed records can be sent to dashboards,
used to generate alerts, dynamically change pricing and advertising strategies, or send data to a variety of other AWS
services. For information about Streams features and pricing, see Amazon Kinesis Streams. Reference:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/kinesis/latest/dev/introduction.html

QUESTION 7
If you\\’re trying to configure an AWS Elastic Beanstalk worker tier for easy debugging if there are problems finishing
queue jobs, what should you configure?
A. Configure Rolling Deployments.
B. Configure Enhanced Health Reporting
C. Configure Blue-Green Deployments.
D. Configure a Dead Letter Queue
Correct Answer: D
Elastic Beanstalk worker environments support Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS) dead letter queues. A dead letter
queue is a queue where other (source) queues can send messages that for some reason could not be successfully
processed. A primary benefit of using a dead letter queue is the ability to sideline and isolate the unsuccessfully
processed messages. You can then analyze any messages sent to the dead letter queue to try to determine why they
were not successfully processed. Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/elasticbeanstalk/latest/dg/using-featuresmanaging-env-tiers.html#worker-deadletter

QUESTION 8
A highly regulated company has a policy that DevOps Engineers should not log in to their Amazon EC2 instances
except in emergencies. If a DevOps Engineer does log in, the Security team must be notified within 15 minutes of the
occurrence.
Which solution will meet these requirements?
A. Install the Amazon Inspector agent on each EC2 instance. Subscribe to Amazon CloudWatch Events notifications.
Trigger an AWS Lambda function to check if a message is about user logins. If it is, send a notification to the Security
team using Amazon SNS.
B. Install the Amazon CloudWatch agent on each EC2 instance. Configure the agent to push all logs to Amazon
CloudWatch Logs and set up a CloudWatch metric filter that searches for user logins. If a login is found, send a
notification to the Security team using Amazon SNS.
C. Set up AWS CloudTrail with Amazon CloudWatch Logs. Subscribe CloudWatch Logs to Amazon Kinesis. Attach
AWS Lambda to Kinesis to parse and determine if a log contains a user login. If it does, send a notification to the
Security team using Amazon SNS.
D. Set up a script on each Amazon EC2 instance to push all logs to Amazon S3. Set up an S3 event to trigger an AWS
Lambda function, which triggers an Amazon Athena query to run. The Athena query checks for logins and sends the
output to the Security team using Amazon SNS.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
When thinking of AWS Elastic Beanstalk, which statement is true?
A. Worker tiers pull jobs from SNS.
B. Worker tiers pull jobs from HTTP.
C. Worker tiers pull jobs from JSON.
D. Worker tiers pull jobs from SQS.
Correct Answer: D
Elastic Beanstalk installs a daemon on each Amazon EC2 instance in the Auto Scaling group to process Amazon SQS
messages in the worker environment. The daemon pulls data off the Amazon SQS queue, inserts it into the message
body of an HTTP POST request, and sends it to a user-configurable URL path on the local host. The content type for
the message body within an HTTP POST request is application/json by default.
Reference:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/elasticbeanstalk/latest/dg/using-features-managing-env-tiers.html

QUESTION 10
You need your API backed by DynamoDB to stay online during a total regional AWS failure. You can tolerate a couple
minutes of lag or slowness during a large failure event, but the system should recover with normal operation after those
few minutes.
What is a good approach?
A. Set up DynamoDB cross-region replication in a master-standby configuration, with a single standby in another region.
Create an Auto Scaling Group behind an ELB in each of the two regions DynamoDB is running in. Add a Route53
Latency DNS Record with DNS Failover, using the ELBs in the two regions as the resource records.
B. Set up a DynamoDB Multi-Region table. Create an Auto Scaling Group behind an ELB in each of the two regions
DynamoDB is running in. Add a Route53 Latency DNS Record with DNS Failover, using the ELBs in the two regions as
the resource records.
C. Set up a DynamoDB Multi-Region table. Create a cross-region ELB pointing to a cross-region Auto Scaling Group,
and direct a Route53 Latency DNS Record with DNS Failover to the cross-region ELB.
D. Set up DynamoDB cross-region replication in a master-standby configuration, with a single standby in another region.
Create a cross-region ELB pointing to a cross-region Auto Scaling Group, and direct a Route53 Latency DNS Record
with DNS Failover to the cross-region ELB.
Correct Answer: A
There is no such thing as a cross-region ELB, nor such thing as a cross-region Auto Scaling Group, nor such thing as a
DynamoDB Multi-Region Table. The only option that makes sense is the cross-regional replication version with two
ELBs
and ASGs with Route53 Failover and Latency DNS.
Reference:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/amazondynamodb/latest/developerguide/Streams.CrossRegionRepl.html

QUESTION 11
A DevOps Engineer discovered a sudden spike in a website\\’s page load times and found that a recent deployment
occurred. A brief diff of the related commit shows that the URL for an external API call was altered and the connecting
port
changed from 80 to 443. The external API has been verified and works outside the application. The application logs
show that the connection is now timing out, resulting in multiple retries and eventual failure of the call.
Which debug steps should the Engineer take to determine the root cause of the issue\\’?
A. Check the VPC Flow Logs looking for denies originating from Amazon EC2 instances that are part of the web Auto
Scaling group. Check the ingress security group rules and routing rules for the VPC.
B. Check the existing egress security group rules and network ACLs for the VPC. Also check the application logs being
written to Amazon CloudWatch Logs for debug information.
C. Check the egress security group rules and network ACLs for the VPC. Also check the VPC flow logs looking for
accepts originating from the web Auto Scaling group.
D. Check the application logs being written to Amazon CloudWatch Logs for debug information. Check the ingress
security group rules and routing rules for the VPC.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A business has an application that consists of five independent AWS Lambda functions.
The DevOps Engineer has built a CI/CD pipeline using AWS CodePipeline and AWS CodeBuild that builds, tests,
packages, and deploys each Lambda function in sequence. The pipeline uses an Amazon CloudWatch Events rule to
ensure
the pipeline execution starts as quickly as possible after a change is made to the application source code.
After working with the pipeline for a few months the DevOps Engineer has noticed the pipeline takes too long to
complete.
What should the DevOps Engineer implement to BEST improve the speed of the pipeline?
A. Modify the CodeBuild projects within the pipeline to use a compute type with more available network throughput.
B. Create a custom CodeBuild execution environment that includes a symmetric multiprocessing configuration to run the
builds in parallel.
C. Modify the CodePipeline configuration to execute actions for each Lambda function in parallel by specifying the same
runOrder.
D. Modify each CodeBuild project to run within a VPC and use dedicated instances to increase throughput.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A company has a website in an AWS Elastic Beanstalk load balancing and automatic scaling environment. This environment has an Amazon RDS MySQL instance configured as its database resource. After a sudden increase in
traffic, the website started dropping traffic. An administrator discovered that the application on some instances is not
responding as the result of out-of-memory errors. Classic Load Balancer marked those instances as out of service, and
the health status of Elastic Beanstalk enhanced health reporting is degraded. However, Elastic Beanstalk did not
replace those instances. Because of the diminished capacity behind the Classic Load Balancer, the application
response times are slower for the customers. Which action will permanently fix this issue?
A. Clone the Elastic Beanstalk environment. When the new environment is up, swap CNAME and terminate the earlier
environment.
B. Temporarily change the maximum number of instances in the Auto Scaling group to allow the group to support more
traffic.
C. Change the setting for the Auto Scaling group health check from Amazon EC2 to Elastic Load Balancing, and
increase the capacity of the group.
D. Write a cron script for restraining the web server process when memory is full, and deploy it with AWS Systems
Manager.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which method helps to optimize costs of users moving to the AWS Cloud?
A. Paying only for what is used
B. Purchasing hardware before it is needed
C. Manually provisioning cloud resources
D. Purchasing for the maximum possible load
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cloudmanagementinsider.com/ways-to-optimize-aws-cost/


QUESTION 2
Which of the following is an important architectural principle when designing cloud applications?
A. Store data and backups in the same region.
B. Design tightly coupled system components.
C. Avoid multi-threading.
D. Design for failure.
Correct Answer: D
There are six design principles for operational excellence in the cloud:
Perform operations as code Annotate documentation Make frequent, small, reversible changes Refine operations
procedures frequently Anticipate failure Learn from all operational failures
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/apn/the-5-pillars-of-the-aws-well-architected-framework/

QUESTION 3
Which of the following Identity and Access Management (IAM) entities is associated with an access key ID and secret
access key when using AWS Command Line Interface (AWS CLI)?
A. IAM group
B. IAM user
C. IAM role
D. IAM policy
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/IAM/latest/UserGuide/id_credentials_access-keys.html

QUESTION 4
Which actions support the reliability pillar of the AWS Architected Framework? (Select TWO.)
A. Enforce higher security specifically in regard to designed for failure.
B. Ensure that backend components include multiple Availability Zone deployments.
C. Avoid the use of automatic scaling to simplify the cloud architecture.
D. Enable object versioning within Amazon S3 and replicating data to another AWS Region.
E. Include an Application Load Balancer to distribute traffic to multiple Amazon EC2 instance in separate Availability
Zones
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 5
Which tool is best suited for combining the billing of AWS accounts that were previously independent from one
another?
A. Detailed billing report
B. Consolidated billing
C. AWS Cost and Usage report
D. Cost allocation report
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/awsaccountbilling/latest/aboutv2/consolidated-billing.html

QUESTION 6
Which of the following are advantages of the AWS Cloud? (Choose two.)
A. AWS manages the maintenance of the cloud infrastructure
B. AWS manages the security of applications built on AWS
C. AWS manages capacity planning for physical servers
D. AWS manages the development of applications on AWS
E. AWS manages cost planning for virtual servers
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/compliance/data-center/controls/


QUESTION 7
Which design principle is achieved by following the reliability pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework?
A. Vertical scaling
B. Manual failure recovery
C. Testing recovery procedures
D. Changing infrastructure manually
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/apn/the-5-pillars-of-the-aws-well-architected-framework/

QUESTION 8
Which requirement must be met for a member account to be unlinked from an AWS organization account?
A. The linked account must be activity compliant with AWS System and Organization Controls (SOC)
B. The payer and the linked account both create AWS Support cases to request that the member account be unlinked
from the organization.
C. The monitor account must meet the requirements of a standalone account.
D. The payer account must be used to remove the linked account from the organization
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which service would provide network connectivity in a hybrid architecture that includes the AWS Cloud?
A. Amazon VPC
B. AWS Direct Connect
C. AWS Directory Service
D. Amazon API Gateway
Correct Answer: A
Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC) is a logically isolated, private section of the AWS Cloud to launch
resources in a virtual data center in the cloud. Amazon VPC allows you to leverage multiple Availability Zones (AZ)
within a region so that you can build greater fault tolerance within your workloads. You have complete control.
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/publicsector/aws-networking-capabilities-gives-you-choices-for-hybrid-cloudconnectivity-but-which-service-works-best-for-your-use-case/

QUESTION 10
Which of the following security-related services does AWS offer? (Choose two.)
A. Multi-factor authentication physical tokens
B. AWS Trusted Advisor security checks
C. Data encryption
D. Automated penetration testing
E. Amazon S3 copyrighted content detection
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/security/


QUESTION 11
Which of the following are benefits of hosting infrastructure in the AWS Cloud? (Choose two.)
A. There are no upfront commitments.
B. AWS manages all security in the cloud.
C. Users have the ability to provision resources on demand.
D. Users have access to free and unlimited storage.
E. Users have control over the physical infrastructure.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
A company has an application with users in both Australia and Brazil. All the company infrastructure is currently
provisioned in the Asia Pacific (Sydney) Region in Australia, and Brazilian users are experiencing high latency. What
should the company do to reduce latency?
A. Implement AWS Direct Connect for users in Brazil
B. Use AWS Transit Gateway to quickly route users from Brazil to the application
C. Launch additional Amazon EC2 instances in Sydney to handle the demand
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/transit-gateway/

QUESTION 13
Which of the following are AWS best practices? (Select TWO.)
A. Enable AWS Multi-Factor Authentication (AWS MFA) for users.
B. Enable access key sharing among users.
C. Use the inline policies instead of user managed policies.
D. Configure strong password policies for users.
E. Avoid rotating credentials.
Correct Answer: AC

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QUESTION 1
A company provisions an AWS Direct Connect connection to permit access to Amazon EC2 resources in several
Amazon VPCs and to data stored in private Amazon S3 buckets. The Network Engineer needs to configure the
company\\’s on-premises router for this Direct Connect connection.
Which of the following actions will require the LEAST amount of configuration overhead on the customer router?
A. Configure private virtual interfaces for the VPC resources and for Amazon S3.
B. Configure private virtual interfaces for the VPC resources and a public virtual interface for Amazon S3.
C. Configure a private virtual interface to a Direct Connect gateway for the VPC resources and for Amazon S3.
D. Configure a private virtual interface to a Direct Connect gateway for the VPC resources and a public virtual interface
for Amazon S3.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
You can use the ____ command of the AWS Config service CLI to see the compliance state for each AWS resource of
a specific type.
A. describe-compliance-by-resource
B. get-compliance-details-by-config-rule
C. describe-compliance-by-config-rule
D. get-compliance-details-by-resource
Correct Answer: A
You can use the AWS Config console, AWS CLI, or AWS Config API to view the compliance state of your rules and
resources. The describe-compliance-by-resource command of the AWS Config CLI to see the compliance state for each
AWS resource of a specific type. This is distinct from the describe-compliance-by-config-rule command, which gives the
compliance state of each rule in AWS Config .
Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/config/latest/developerguide/evaluate-config_view-compliance.html

QUESTION 3
An organization is migrating its on-premises applications to AWS by using a lift-and-shift approach, taking advantage of
managed AWS services wherever possible. The company must be able to edit the application code during the migration
phase. One application is a traditional three-tier application, consisting of a web presentation tier, an application tier, and
a database tier. The external calling client applications need their sessions to remain sticky to both the web and
application nodes that they initially connect to.
Which load balancing solution would allow the web and application tiers to scale horizontally independent from one
another other?
A. Use an Application Load Balancer at the web tier and a Classic Load Balancer at the application tier. Set session
stickiness on both, but update the application code to create an application-controlled cookie on the Classic Load
Balancer.
B. Use an Application Load Balancer at both the web and application tiers, setting session stickiness at the target group
level for both tiers.
C. Deploy a web node and an application node as separate containers on the same host, using task linking to create a
relationship between the pair. Add an Application Load Balancer with session stickiness in front of all web node
containers.
D. Use a Network Load Balancer at the web tier, and an Application Load Balancer at the application tier. Enable
session stickiness on the Application Load Balancer, but take advantage of the native WebSockets protocols available
to the Network Load Balancer.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A user has created a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16 with only a private subnet and VPN connection using the VPC wizard.
The user wants to connect to the instance in a private subnet over SSH. How should the user define the security rule for
SSH?
A. The user can connect to a instance in a private subnet using the NAT instance
B. The user has to create an instance in EC2 Classic with an elastic IP and configure the security group of a private
subnet to allow SSH from that elastic IP
C. Allow Inbound traffic on port 22 from the user\\’s network
D. Allow Inbound traffic on port 80 and 22 to allow the user to connect to a private subnet over the internet
Correct Answer: C
The user can create subnets as per the requirement within a VPC. If the user wants to connect VPC from his own data
centre, the user can setup a case with a VPN only subnet (private) which uses VPN access to connect with his data
centre. When the user has configured this setup with Wizard, all network connections to the instances in the subnet will
come from his data centre. The user has to configure the security group of the private subnet which allows the inbound
traffic on SSH (port 22) from the data centre\\’s network range.
Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonVPC/latest/UserGuide/VPC_Scenario4.html

QUESTION 5
A company deployed its production Amazon VPC using CIDR block 33.16.0.0/16. The company has nearly depleted its
addresses and now needs to extend the VPC network.
Which CIDR blocks meet the company\\’s requirement to extend the VPC network with a secondary CIDR? (Choose
two.)
A. 33.17.0.0/16
B. 172.16.0.0/18
C. 100.70.0.0/17
D. 192.168.1.0/24
E. 10.0.0.0/8
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
A company has an application running on Amazon EC2 instances in a private subnet that connects to a third-party
service provider\\’s public HTTP endpoint through a NAT gateway. As request rates increase, new connections are
starting to fail. At the same time, the ErrorPortAllocation Amazon CloudWatch metric count for the NAT gateway is
increasing.
Which of the following actions should improve the connectivity issues? (Choose two.)
A. Allocate additional elastic IP addresses to the NAT gateway.
B. Request that the third-party service provider implement HTTP keepalive.
C. Implement TCP keepalive on the client instances.
D. Create additional NAT gateways and update the private subnet route table to introduce the new NAT gateways.
E. Create additional NAT gateways in the public subnet and split client instances into multiple private subnets, each with
a route to a different NAT gateway.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/knowledge-center/vpc-resolve-port-allocation-errors/


QUESTION 7
You can use the ____ page of the AWS Config console to look up resources that AWS Config has discovered, including
deleted resources and resources that are not currently being recorded.
A. snapshot listing
B. configuration history
C. resource inventory
D. resource database
Correct Answer: C
You can use the AWS Config console, AWS CLI, and AWS Config API to look up the resources that AWS Config has
taken an inventory of, or discovered, including deleted resources and resources that AWS Config is not currently
recording. AWS Config discovers supported resource types only. You can use the AWS Config console in the AWS
Management console to look up these resources. The Resource Inventory page lets you perform this search.
Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/config/latest/developerguide/looking-up-discovered-resources.html
 

QUESTION 8
You can use the ____ command of the AWS Config service CLI to see the compliance state of each resource that AWS
Config evaluates for a specific rule.
A. describe-compliance-by-resource
B. describe-compliance-by-config-rule
C. get-compliance-details-by-config-rule
D. get-compliance-details-by-resource
Correct Answer: C
You can use the get-compliance-details-by-config-rule command of the AWS Config CLI to see the compliance state of
each resource that AWS Config evaluates for a specific rule. Reference:
http://docs.aws.amazon.com/config/latest/developerguide/evaluate-config_view-compliance.html


QUESTION 9
Your company has a DX connection and you just added a new VPC and Private VIF to which you have connected to
your DX link. You copied the settings from the other VPC to ensure it\\’s the same. Once you connected the new VIF,
you began seeing problems with connectivity to both VPCs.
You checked to make sure you didn\\’t use the same CIDR with each VPC, so what could be the problem?
A. You used the same VLAN ID for both connections.
B. You overloaded your DX circuit.
C. Your MPLS provider does not allow traffic to two VPCs.
D. You can only connect one VIF to a DX circuit.
Correct Answer: A
You can only have 1 instance of any VLAN ID.

QUESTION 10
Each custom AWS Config rule you create must be associated with a(n) AWS ____, which contains the logic that
evaluates whether your AWS resources comply with the rule.
A. Lambda function
B. Configuration trigger
C. EC2 instance
D. S3 bucket
Correct Answer: A
You can develop custom AWS Config rules to be evaluated by associating each of them with an AWS Lambda function,
which contains the logic that evaluates whether your AWS resources comply with the rule. You associate this function
with your rule, and the rule invokes the function either in response to configuration changes or periodically. The function
then evaluates whether your resources comply with your rule, and sends its evaluation results to AWS Config.
Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/config/latest/developerguide/evaluate-config_develop-rules.html

QUESTION 11
Your company has installed an AWS Direct Connect connection in an ap-southeast-1 Direct Connect location. A public
virtual interface is configured through a router to a dedicated firewall. You advertise your company\\’s public /24 CIDR
block to AWS with AS 65500. The company maintains a separate, corporate Internet firewall to map all outbound traffic
to a single IP. This firewall maintains a BGP relationship with an upstream Internet provider that has delegated the
public IP block your company uses. When the BGP session for the public virtual interface is up, corporate network users
cannot access Amazon S3 resources in the ap-southeast-1 region.
Which step should you take to provide concurrent AWS and Internet access?
A. Configure AS-PATH prepending for the public virtual interface.
B. Advertise a host route for the corporate firewall on the public virtual interface.
C. Advertise a host route for the corporate firewall to the upstream Internet provider.
D. NAT the traffic destined for AWS from the dedicated firewall using the public virtual interface.
Correct Answer: D
When outgoing traffic is routed via the corporate firewall, its return path is via the Direct Connect public virtual interface
and therefore through the dedicated firewall. This dedicated firewall does not track the original NAT session and
subsequently drops the traffic. Answer A is incorrect because AWS will always prefer Direct Connect over Internet
routing. Answer B is incorrect because return traffic is still processed by the dedicated firewall. Answer C is incorrect
because it does not change the traffic flow.

QUESTION 12
A user is running a batch process on EBS backed EC2 instances. The batch process launches few EC2 instances to
process hadoop Map reduce jobs which can run between 50-600 minutes or sometimes for even more time. The user
wants a configuration that can terminate the instance only when the process is completed. How can the user configure
this with CloudWatch?
A. Configure a job which terminates all instances after 600 minutes
B. It is not possible to terminate instances automatically
C. Set up the CloudWatch with Auto Scaling to terminate all the instances
D. Configure the CloudWatch action to terminate the instance when the CPU utilization falls below 5%
Correct Answer: D
Amazon CloudWatch alarm watches a single metric over a time period that the user specifies and performs one or more
actions based on the value of the metric relative to a given threshold over a number of time periods. The user can setup
an action which terminates the instances when their CPU utilization is below a certain threshold for a certain period of
time. The EC2 action can either terminate or stop the instance as part of the EC2 action.
Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonCloudWatch/latest/DeveloperGuide/UsingAlarmActions.html

QUESTION 13
A company\\’s Network Engineering team is solely responsible for deploying VPC infrastructure using AWS
CloudFormation. The company wants to give its Developers the ability to launch applications using CloudFormation
templates so that subnets can be created using available CIDR ranges.
What should be done to meet these requirements?
A. Create a CloudFormation templates with Amazon EC2 resources that rely on cfn-init and cfn-signals to inform the
stack of available CIDR ranges.
B. Create a CloudFormation template with a custom resource that analyzes traffic activity in VPC Flow Logs and reports
on available CIDR ranges.
C. Create a CloudFormation template that references the Fn::Cidr intrinsic function within a subnet resource to select an
available CIDR range.
D. Create a CloudFormation template with a custom resource that uses AWS Lambda and Amazon DynamoDB to
manage available CIDR ranges.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

300-810 exam questions-q1

Users report that they cannot see the Chat Rooms icon on their Cisco Jabber clients. This feature works without issue in
the lab. An engineer reviews the Cisco IMandP and Jabber configuration and finds that the jabber-config.xml file is
configured properly to support this feature. Which activity should be performed on the IMandP server to resolve this
issue?
A. Activate Cisco XCP Connection Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation.
B. Restart Cisco XCP Message Archiver in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/jabber-windows/118684-probsolchat-00.html


QUESTION 2
When Cisco IM and Presence is configured to use automatic fallback, how long does the Server Recovery Manager
service wait for a failed service/server to remain active before an automatic fallback is initiated?
A. 10 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 1 hour
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-manager-impresence-service/200958-IM-and-Presence-Server-High-Availability.html

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

300-810 exam questions-q3

Users connected to the internal network report a “Cannot communicate with the server” error while trying to log in to
Cisco Jabber using auto service discovery. The Jabber diagnostics and the SRV record configuration are as shown in
the exhibit. The host cucm1.ccnp.cisco.com is correctly resolved by the user desktops with the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager IP address. Why is the user not able to log in?
A. SRV protocol is not set up correctly. It should be _tls instead of _tcp.
B. Marking weight as 0 on the SRV record makes it inactive, so Jabber cannot discover the Cisco Unified CM.
C. The port specified on the SRV record is wrong.
D. The domain ccnp.cisco.com does not exist on the DNS server.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/jabber-client-login-and-login-issues/tap/3143446

QUESTION 4
An engineer is checking the Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco Unity Connection integration and
presses the Message button on a phone to check the voicemail. Which action does Cisco Unified CM take?
A. Cisco Unified CM looks up the voicemail pilot configured to dial.
B. Cisco Unified CM routes the configured hunt pilot to Unity Connection.
C. Cisco Unified CM looks up the hunt pilot configured to dial.
D. Cisco Unified CM sends an AXL query to Unity Connection.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/admin/9_1_1/ccmsys/CUCM_BK_C5565591_00_cucm-system-guide-91/CUCM_BK_C5565591_00_cucm-system-guide-91_chapter_011110.html

QUESTION 5
Which authentication method allows a user to log in to an SSO-enabled Cisco Unified Communications application by
utilizing a Microsoft Windows login, thereby not requiring any credentials to be entered?
A. Smart Card
B. OAuth
C. form-based
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://developer.cisco.com/docs/cisco-unified-communications-single-sign-on-tutorial/#!cisco-unifiedcommunications-single-sign-on-tutorial/learning-more-about-sso

QUESTION 6
After integrating Cisco Unity Express with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, users report that the
system does not respond to their digit presses. Which two configuration snippets resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. dial-peer voice 6800 voip destination-pattern 5… session protocol sipv2 session target ipv4:10.3.6.127 dtmf-relay sipkpml codec g729r8
B. dial-peer voice 6800 voip destination-pattern 5… session protocol sipv2 session target ipv4:10.3.6.127 dtmf-relay sipnotify codec g711ulaw
C. dial-peer voice 6800 voip destination-pattern 5… session protocol sipv2 session target ipv4:10.3.6.127 dtmf-relay rtpnte codec g711ulaw
D. dial-peer voice 6800 voip destination-pattern 5… session protocol sipv2 session target ipv4:10.3.6.127 dtmf-relay sipkpml codec g711ulaw
E. dial-peer voice 6800 voip destination-pattern 5… session protocol sipv2 session target ipv4:10.3.6.127 dtmf-relay sipnotify codec g729r8
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 7
Which Cisco IM and Presence service must be activated and running for IM Presence to successfully integrate with
Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Cisco DHCP Monitor Service
B. Cisco AXL Web Service
C. Self-Provisioning IVR
D. Cisco XCP Authentication Service
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

300-810 exam questions-q8

Which action allows a remote Cisco Jabber user utilizing Mobile and Remote Access to automatically log in to a Cisco
Unity Connection voicemail box via OAuth?
A. Add CUCM under System Settings > Authz Servers in Cisco Expressway-E.
B. Add CUCM under System Settings > Authz Servers in Cisco Expressway-C.
C. Add CUCM under System Settings > Authz Servers in Cisco Unity.
D. Add CUCM under System Settings > Authz Servers in Cisco Unity Connection.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/unified-communications/jabber-mra-unity-voice-mail-integration-issue/tdp/3195653

QUESTION 9
Which CLI command is used to collect traces from the Cisco Presence engine for seven days?
A. file build log cisco_presence_engine 7
B. file build log cisco_presence 168
C. file build log presence_engine 7
D. file build log presence_engine 168
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which type of SRV record provides the location of Cisco Expressway-E?
A. _collab-edge._tls.example.com
B. _cisco-uds._tcp.example.com
C. _cuplogin._tcp.example.com
D. _http._tcp.example.com
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/Windows/9_7/CJAB_BK_C606D8A9_00_cisco-jabber-dns-configuration-guide/CJAB_BK_C606D8A9_00_cisco-jabber-dns-configuration-guide_chapter_010.html


QUESTION 11
Which two Cisco Unity Connection logs are used to troubleshoot issues with Message Waiting Indicators? (Choose
two.)
A. Connection IMAP Server
B. Connection Mailbox Sync
C. Connection Notifier
D. Connection Message Transfer Agent
E. Connection Conversation Manager
Correct Answer: DE
 

QUESTION 12
What prevents toll fraud on voicemail ports?
A. IP address trusted list on the PSTN gateway
B. CSS
C. Block OffNet to OffNet Transfer service parameter
D. FAC
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unity-connection/119337-technote-cuc-00.html


QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. 

300-810 exam questions-q13

Which two steps resolve the “Users with Duplicate User IDs” message? (Choose two.)
A. Rename the directory URI value for one of the users to ensure that there is no duplication.
B. Rename the User ID value for one user if different users on different clusters have the same User ID assigned.
C. Unassign a user from one of the clusters when the same user is assigned to two different clusters.
D. Assign the duplicate user to the secondary Cisco IM and Presence node.
E. Delete the user ID for the duplicate user ID.
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/im_presence/configAdminGuide/10_0_1/CUP0_BK_C318987B_00_config-admin-guide-imp-100/CUP0_BK_C318987B_00_config-admin-guideimp100_chapter_010101.html

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Full Information About Dell EMC DES-2T13 Exam:

Vendor: EMC
Certifications: EMC Other Certification
Exam Code: DES-2T13
Exam Name: Specialist – Cloud Architect – Cloud Infrastructure Exam
Updated: Oct 21, 2020
Q&As: 74

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QUESTION 1
What is a deliverable of the cloud design process?
A. Training for IT staff
B. Operational procedures
C. Lower infrastructure costs
D. Reduced time to market
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
SPECIAL INSTRUCTIONS REMINDER
The remaining questions are associated with two cases.
Each case has an introductory, descriptive passage (case text) that describes background information and requirements
for a specific cloud-based design. And each case has a set of six related, randomized questions. You will need to read
the case text in order to answer the related questions correctly.
Given that there are two cases with six scored questions each, the total number of case-based scored questions is 12.
When you display each question you can easily review the related case text in a pop-up window by clicking on the
“Case” icon (shown below)
Case 4
Refer to the exhibit.

Examdemosimulation DES-2T13 exam questions-q2

Your company is currently using a traditional SAN storage network. The server infrastructure is partially virtualized.
There is a public cloud in place that is used to test development and application migration to the cloud.
Business requirements: Consolidate the network, storage, and compute resources Simplify network management and
storage provisioning Maintain application performance Need to share resources to reduce cost and improve efficiency
Other considerations: Monitoring of protection SLAs All transactions must be logged for auditing review Users are
validated using internal credentials Refer to Case 4.
You are designing the network components for a Do-It-Yourself private cloud solution. You want to restrict domain
events and minimize traffic disruptions between nodes. Which compute to storage connectivity solution provides this
function?
A. VSAN
B. FC SAN
C. VLAN
D. VXLAN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Case 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Examdemosimulation DES-2T13 exam questions-q3

Your company recently negotiated several contracts with new customers to use its proprietary eCommerce system. As a
the result, the customer base has grown rapidly, which has introduced several challenges and requirements.
Business requirements:
Applications need to scale quickly
Metrics and reporting to anticipate business trends and efficient use of resources
External customers are looking to license the eCommerce application
Other considerations:
Applications need to be recorded for the public cloud
Address security vulnerabilities for customer data in the cloud
Refer to Case 1.
You are sizing the compute capacity of blade servers in a converged infrastructure solution with the following
specifications:
Number of cores: 16
Processor speed: 3.5 GHz
Utilization percentage: 75%
What is the total GHz processing capability of one blade server?
A. 18,6
B. 20,2
C. 42,0
D. 56,7
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
SPECIAL INSTRUCTIONS REMINDER
The remaining questions are associated with two cases.
Each case has an introductory, descriptive passage (case text) that describes background information and requirements
for a specific cloud-based design. And each case has a set of six related, randomized questions. You will need to read
the case text in order to answer the related questions correctly.
Given that there are two cases with six scored questions each, the total number of case-based scored questions is 12.
When you display each question you can easily review the related case text in a pop-up window by clicking on the
“Case” icon (shown below)
Case 4
Refer to the exhibit.

Examdemosimulation DES-2T13 exam questions-q4

Your company is currently using a traditional SAN storage network. The server infrastructure is partially virtualized.
There is a public cloud in place that is used to test development and application migration to the cloud.
Business requirements: Consolidate the network, storage, and compute resources Simplify network management and
storage provisioning Maintain application performance Need to share resources to reduce cost and improve efficiency
Other considerations: Monitoring of protection SLAs All transactions must be logged for auditing review Users are
validated using internal credentials Refer to Case 4.
You must design the solution to enable external access to the eCommerce application using a Public cloud. The
development team wants to ensure that the application has a known performance profile. Which consideration offers
best practices to address this concern?
A. Automation Management
B. Multicloud Compliance
C. Interoperability
D. Physical Server Consistency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
SPECIAL INSTRUCTIONS REMINDER
The remaining questions are associated with two cases.
Each case has an introductory, descriptive passage (case text) that describes background information and requirements
for a specific cloud-based design. And each case has a set of six related, randomized questions. You will need to read
the case text in order to answer the related questions correctly.
Given that there are two cases with six scored questions each, the total number of case-based scored questions is 12.
When you display each question you can easily review the related case text in a pop-up window by clicking on the
“Case” icon (shown below)
Case 4
Refer to the exhibit.

Examdemosimulation DES-2T13 exam questions-q5

Your company is currently using a traditional SAN storage network. The server infrastructure is partially virtualized.
There is a public cloud in place that is used to test development and application migration to the cloud.
Business requirements: Consolidate the network, storage, and compute resources Simplify network management and
storage provisioning Maintain application performance Need to share resources to reduce cost and improve efficiency
Other considerations: Monitoring of protection SLAs All transactions must be logged for auditing review Users are
validated using internal credentials Refer to Case 4.
You are sizing the compute capacity nodes in a hyper-converged infrastructure solution. Each node has 35 TB of
storage capacity. You have calculated the total cloud storage requirement to be 700 TB. What is the minimum number
of nodes required?
A. 10
B. 14
C. 15
D. 20
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
A cloud architect is evaluating an organization\\’s need for encryption. Which type of encryption eliminates the
the requirement for key management?
A. File system-based
B. Virtual disk
C. Embedded
D. File-based
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You plan to gather application performance data from an existing UNIX environment. What should you use?
A. esxtop
B. NaviAnalyzer
C. iostat
D. perfmon
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
An organization wants to provide its developers with the ability to deploy VMs. These VMs have software and libraries
installed that are used to develop applications. Each VM will be configured with the same IP address and will be able to
download application code from a central server.
What will be included in the design to support these requirements?
A. VXLANs and an OS firewall
B. VXLANs and virtual firewall appliances
C. VLANs and virtual IDS appliances
D. VSANs and virtual IDS appliances
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
As a cloud architect, you are designing a CI solution to ensure that you isolate specific workloads for security. What
should you design for?
A. High Availability
B. Fault Tolerance
C. Multi-tenancy
D. Redundancy
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
SPECIAL INSTRUCTIONS REMINDER
The remaining questions are associated with two cases.
Each case has an introductory, descriptive passage (case text) that describes background information and requirements
for a specific cloud-based design. And each case has a set of six related, randomized questions. You will need to read
the case text in order to answer the related questions correctly.
Given that there are two cases with six scored questions each, the total number of case-based scored questions is 12.
When you display each question you can easily review the related case text in a pop-up window by clicking on the
“Case” icon (shown below)
Case 4
Refer to the exhibit.

Examdemosimulation DES-2T13 exam questions-q10

Your company is currently using a traditional SAN storage network. The server infrastructure is partially virtualized.
There is a public cloud in place that is used to test development and application migration to cloud.
Business requirements: Consolidate the network, storage, and compute resources Simplify network management and
storage provisioning Maintain application performance Need to share resources to reduce cost and improve efficiency
Other considerations: Monitoring of protection SLAs All transactions must be logged for auditing review Users are
validated using internal credentials Refer to Case 4.
You are designing a private cloud to use VLANs to support compute-to-compute connectivity. The IT team has added a
requirement to simplify the configuration management within the infrastructure. What is a limitation related to VLANs for
this requirement?
A. VLANs require separate infrastructure and management traffic trunks
B. VLANs can only support up to 4094 virtual networks
C. Adding a new VLAN requires configuration changes throughout the stack
D. Converged infrastructure limits which NICs can separate network traffic types
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Case 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Examdemosimulation DES-2T13 exam questions-q11

Your company recently negotiated several contracts with new customers to use its proprietary eCommerce system. As a
the result, the customer base has grown rapidly, which has introduced several challenges and requirements.
Business requirements: Applications need to scale quickly Metrics and reporting to anticipate business trends and
efficient use of resources External customers are looking to license the eCommerce application
Other considerations: Applications need to be recorded for the public cloud Address security vulnerabilities for customer
data in the cloud
Refer to Case 1.
You are designing the application development platform for the cloud and are considering using a PaaS Solution. You
must ensure that monitoring is included in the platform. Which key metrics need to be available from the PaaS Solution
that you select?
A. Queue length and storage utilization
B. Storage utilization and account login
C. Account login and response time
D. Response time and queue length
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A company plans to invest $315,000 to cover hardware, software, and deployment expenses. They expect to save $35,000 per month. They are using a decommissioning cost of $35,000 for the old equipment. After how many months
will the company reach the break-even point?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Match each platform requirement to its respective definition.
Select and Place:

Examdemosimulation DES-2T13 exam questions-q13

 

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D. It produces an error because flower braces have been used.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Evaluate the following two queries:

Examdemosimulation 1z0-071 exam questions-q2

Which statement is true regarding the above two queries?
A. Performance would improve in query 2 only if there are null values in the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column.
B. There would be no change in performance.
C. Performance would degrade in query 2.
D. Performance would improve in query 2.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which three statements are true regarding the data types? (Choose three.)
A. The minimum column width that can be specified for a VARCHAR2 data type column is one.
B. Only one LONG column can be used per table.
C. A TIMESTAMP data type column stores only time values with fractional seconds.
D. The BLOB data type column is used to store binary data in an operating system file.
E. The value for a CHAR data type column is blank-padded to the maximum defined column width.
Correct Answer: ABE


QUESTION 4
Which three statements are true regarding single-row functions? (Choose three.)
A. The data type returned, can be different from the data type of the argument that is referenced.
B. They can return multiple values of more than one data type.
C. They can accept only one argument.
D. They can be nested up to only two levels.
E. They can be used in SELECT, WHERE, and ORDER BY clauses.
F. They can accept column names, expressions, variable names, or a user-supplied constants as arguments.
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 5
Which two are true about scalar subquery expressions? (Choose two.)
A. They can return at most one row.
B. You can use them as a default value for a column.
C. You cannot correlate them with a table in the parent statement.
D. You must enclose them in parentheses.
E. They can return two columns.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true about the rules of precedence for operators? (Choose two.)
A. The concatenation operator | | is always evaluated before addition and subtraction in an expression
B. Multiple parentheses can be used to override the default precedence of operators in an expression
C. Arithmetic operators with equal precedence area evaluated from left to right within an expression
D. NULLS influence the precedence of operators in an expression
E. The + binary operator has the highest precedence in an expression in a SQL statement
Correct Answer: BE
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14200/operators001.htm


QUESTION 7
Which three are true about system and object privileges? (Choose three.)
A. WITH GRANT OPTION can be used when granting an object privilege to both users and roles
B. Adding a primary key constraint to an existing table in another schema requires a system privilege
C. Adding a foreign key constraint pointing to a table in another schema requires the REFERENCES object privilege
D. Revoking a system privilege that was granted with WITH ADMIN OPTION has a cascading effect
E. Revoking an object privilege that was granted with the WITH GRANT OPTION clause has a cascading effect.
F. WITH GRANT OPTION cannot be used when granting an object privilege to PUBLIC
Correct Answer: ACE
Reference https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/network.111/b28531/authorization.htm#DBSEG004

QUESTION 8
View the exhibit and examine the structure and data in the INVOICE table.

Examdemosimulation 1z0-071 exam questions-q8

Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT MAX(AVG(SYSDATE -inv_date)) FROM invoice
B. SELECT AVG(inv_date) FROM invoice
C. SELECT MAX(inv_date), MIN(cust_id) FROM invoice
D. SELECT AVG( inv_date -SYSDATE), AVG(inv_amt) FROM invoice
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9
Examine this SELECT statement and view the Exhibit to see its output:

Examdemosimulation 1z0-071 exam questions-q9

SELECT constraints_name, constraints_type, search_condition, r_constraints_name, delete_rule, status,
FROM user_constraints
WHERE table_name = \\’ORDERS\\’;
Which two statements are true about the output? (Choose two.)
A. The DELETE_RULE column indicates the desired state of related rows in the child table when the corresponding row
is deleted from the parent table.
B. The R_CONSTRAINT_NAME column contains an alternative name for the constraint.
C. In the second column, \\’c\\’ indicates a check constraint.
D. The STATUS column indicates whether the table is currently in use.
Correct Answer: AC
 

QUESTION 10
Which three statements are true about Data Manipulation Language (DML)?
A. UPDATE statements can have different subqueries to specify the values for each updated column.
B. INSERT statements can insert NULLS explicitly into a column.
C. DELETE statements can remove multiple rows based on multiple conditions.
D. DML statements require a primary key be defined on a table.
E. INSERT INTO…SELECT…FROM statements automatically commit.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 11
Which three statements are true regarding the WHERE and HAVING clauses in a SQL statement? (Choose three.)
A. WHERE and HAVING clauses cannot be used together in a SQL statement.
B. The HAVING clause conditions can have aggregate functions.
C. The HAVING clause conditions can use aliases for the columns.
D. The WHERE clause is used to exclude rows before the grouping of data.
E. The HAVING clause is used to exclude one or more aggregated results after grouping data.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 12
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the tables.

Examdemosimulation 1z0-071 exam questions-q12

Which three statements are true?
A. The statement will execute successfully and a new row will be inserted into the SALES table.
B. A product can have a different unit price at different times.
C. The statement will fail because a subquery may not be contained in a VALUES clause.
D. The statement will fail if a row already exists in the SALES table for product 23.
E. A customer can exist in many countries.
F. The SALES table has five foreign keys.
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 13
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the ORDER_ITEMS table.

Examdemosimulation 1z0-071 exam questions-q13

Examine the following SQL statement:
SELECT order_id, product_id, unit_price
FROM order_items
WHERE unit_price =
(SELECT MAX(unit_price)
FROM order_items
GROUP BY order_id);
You want to display the PRODUCT_ID of the product that has the highest UNIT_PRICE per ORDER_ID. What
correction should be made in the above SQL statement to achieve this?
A. Remove the GROUP BY clause from the subquery and place it in the main query
B. Replace = with the >ANY operator
C. Replace = with the >ALL operator
D. Replace = with the IN operator
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
You are a database administrator in a company that uses Microsoft SharePoint Server for all intranet sites. You are
responsible for the installation of new database server instances.
You must install Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Server (SSAS) to support deployment of the following projects. You
develop both projects by using SQL Server Data Tools.
You need to install the appropriate services to support both projects.
What should you do? In the table below, select the appropriate services for each project.
NOTE: Make only one selection in each column. Each correct selection is worth one point.

Examdemosimulation 70-768 exam questions-q1

Project1:
Project2: Multidimensional
Note: Analysis Services can be installed in one of three server modes: Multidimensional and Data Mining (default),
Power Pivot for SharePoint, and Tabular.

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
A company has an e-commerce website. When a customer places an order, information about the transaction is
inserted into tables in a Microsoft SQL Server relational database named OLTP1. The company has a SQL Server
Analysis
Services (SSAS) instance that is configured to use Tabular mode. SSAS uses data from OLTP1 to populate a data
model.
Sales analysts build reports based on the SSAS model. Reports must be able to access data as soon as it is available
in the relational database.
You need to configure and deploy an Analysis Services project to the Analysis Services instance that allows near realtime data source access.
Solution: In the Deployment Option property for the report, you set the Query Mode to DirectQuery with InMemory.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
With DirectQuerywithInMemory mode the queries use the relational data source by default, unless otherwise specified in
the connection string from the client. References:https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh230898(v=sql.120).aspx

QUESTION 3
You are developing a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) tabular project. The model includes a table named Sales.
The Sales table includes a single date column.
The Sales table must meet the following requirements:
Queries must be able to return all rows.
Must be able to support four different processing schedules for different date ranges.
Date ranges must not include any overlapping data.
You need to implement a solution that meets the requirements.
What should you do?
A. Create four partitions for the Sales table. Create four roles. Use the same row filter queries for each role and
partition.
B. Convert the Sales table into four smaller tables by using row filter queries. Use one perspective for all four tables.
C. Create four partitions for the Sales table. Use row filter queries for each partition.
D. Convert the Sales table into four smaller tables by using row filter queries. Use one perspective for each of the four
tables.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A company has a multidimensional cube that is used for analyzing sales data. You add a new measure named
Transaction ?Total Including Tax and include the Supplier, Payment Method, and Transaction Type dimensions in the
data model. The Transaction ?Total Including Tax measure uses the existing Customer and Date dimensions.
When users have queried the new measure in the past, they saw results as shown in the existing query output exhibit.
(Click the Exhibit button.)

Examdemosimulation 70-768 exam questions-q4

The overall total is incorrectly displayed on every row. In addition, the results are no longer formatted correctly. The
query result should appear as shown in the desired query output exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

Examdemosimulation 70-768 exam questions-q4-2

You need to ensure the table is displayed correctly.
What should you do? Use drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the
information presented in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Examdemosimulation 70-768 exam questions-q4-3

Correct Answer:

Examdemosimulation 70-768 exam questions-q4-4

Box 1: Enter a custom MeasureExpression property on the measure Calculated measures use MDX expressions to
supply their values, instead of binding to columns in a data source. The Expression property contains the MDX
expression used to supply the values for a Measure only if the Measure is a calculated measure. Otherwise, this
property contains an empty string (“”).

QUESTION 5
You are developing a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) tabular project.
You need to grant the minimum permissions necessary to enable users to query data in a data model.
Which role permission should you use?
A. Explorer
B. Process
C. Browser
D. Administrator
E. Select
F. Read
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 6
You are managing a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) tabular database.
The database must meet the following requirements:
The processing must load data into partitions or tables. The processing must not rebuild hierarchies or relationships.
The processing must not recalculate calculated columns.
You need to implement a processing strategy for the database to meet the requirements.
Which processing mode should you use?
A. Process Clear
B. Process Data
C. Process Add
D. Process Full
E. Process Default
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You install a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) instance in tabular mode on a server.
While processing a very large tabular model, you receive an out-of-memory error. You identify that the amount of
physical memory in the server is insufficient. Additional physical memory cannot be installed in the server.
You need to configure the server to allow paging to disk by using the operating system page file (pagefile.sys).
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:

Examdemosimulation 70-768 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

Examdemosimulation 70-768 exam questions-q7-2

QUESTION 8
You need to configure the server to optimize the afternoon report generation based on the OrderAnalysis cube. Which
property should you configure?
A. LowMemoryLimit
B. VertiPaqPagingPolicy
C. TotalMemoryLimit
D. VirtualMemoryLimit
Correct Answer: A
LowMemoryLimit: For multidimensional instances, a lower threshold at which the server first begins releasing memory
allocated to infrequently used objects.
From scenario: Reports that are generated based on data from the OrderAnalysis cube take more time to complete
when they are generated in the afternoon each day. You examine the server and observe that it is under significant
memory pressure.

QUESTION 9
You are developing a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) tabular project that will be used by the finance, sales, and
marketing teams.
The sales team reports that the model is too complex and difficult to use. The sales team does not need any information
other than sales-related resources in the tabular model. The finance and marketing teams need to see all the resources
in the tabular model.
You need to implement a solution that meets the needs of the sales team while minimizing development and
administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Create a separate partition for each team.
B. Create a separate data source for each team.
C. Create a perspective for the sales team.
D. Enable client side security to filter non-sales data.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You have an existing multidimensional cube that provides sales analysis. The users can slice by date, product, location,
customer, and employee.
The management team plans to evaluate sales employee performance relative to sales targets. You identify the
following metrics for employees:
You need to implement the KPI based on the Status expression.
Solution: You design the following solution:

Examdemosimulation 70-768 exam questions-q10

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A database named DB2 uses the InMemory query mode. Users frequently run the following query:

Examdemosimulation 70-768 exam questions-q11

You need to reconfigure the SSAS instance that hosts DB1.
Which three actions should perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the
answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Examdemosimulation 70-768 exam questions-q11-2

Correct Answer:

Examdemosimulation 70-768 exam questions-q11-3

Step 1: Set the default mode for the data model to DirectQuery.
You discover that the project has been deployed with the Direct Query Mode option set to OFF.
Step 2: Set the mode for the FactInternetSales table\\’s partition to DirectQueryOnly.
Initially, even DirectQuery models are always created in memory. The default query mode for the workspace database
is also set toDirectQuery with In-Memory. This hybrid working mode lets you use the cache of imported data for
improved
performance during the model design process, while validating the model against DirectQuery requirements.
From Scenario: Most queries that use the SalesAnalysis data model use data from a table named FactInternetSales that
is 20 gigabyte (GB) in size. Cached data must be available for the FactInternetSales table. All queries accessing the
SalesAnalysis model must be executed in near real time.
Step 3: Run Process Full for the FactInternetSales partition.
When Process Full is executed against an object that has already been processed, Analysis Services drops all data in
the object, and then processes the object. This kind of processing is required when a structural change has been made
to
an object, for example, when an attribute hierarchy is added, deleted, or renamed
 

QUESTION 12
You need to configure the CoffeeSale fact table environment. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To
answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
NOTE: More than one order of answer choices is correct. You will receive credit for any of the correct orders you select.
Select and Place:

Examdemosimulation 70-768 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

Examdemosimulation 70-768 exam questions-q12-2

Step 1: Partition the CoffeSale facto table.
Step 2: Set the storage mode for all partitions to HOLAP.
Partitions stored as HOLAP are smaller than the equivalent MOLAP partitions because they do not contain source data
and respond faster than ROLAP partitions for queries involving summary data.
Step 3: Alter the processing job to ensure that it rearranges the partition structure each evening.
Step 4: Test that the cube meets the functional requirement for data currency and query performance.
From scenario:
Data analysts must be able to analyze sales for financial years, financial quarters, months, and days. Many reports are
based on analyzing sales by month.
The SalesAnalysis cube contains a fact table named CoffeeSale loaded from a table named FactSale in the data
warehouse. The time granularity within the cube is 15 minutes. The cube is processed every night at 23:00. You
determine that
the fact table cannot be fully processed in the expected time. Users have reported slow query response times.
References:https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/analysis-services/multidimensionalmodels-olap-logical-cubeobjects/partitions-partition-storage-modes-and-processing

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You deploy a tabular data model to an instance of Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS). The model uses an
in-memory cache to store and query data. The data set is already the same size as the available RAM on the server.
Data volumes are likely to continue to increase rapidly.
Your data model contains multiple calculated tables.
The data model must begin processing each day at 2:00 and processing should be complete by 4:00 the same day. You
observe that the data processing operation often does not complete before 7:00. This is adversely affecting team
members.
You need to improve the performance.
Solution: Change the storage mode for the data model to DirectQuery.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
By default, tabular models use an in-memory cache to store and query data. When tabular models query data residing
in-memory, even complex queries can be incredibly fast. However, there are some limitations to using cached data.
Namely, large data sets can exceed available memory, and data freshness requirements can be difficult if not
impossible to achieve on a regular processing schedule.
DirectQuery overcomes these limitations while also leveraging RDBMS features making query execution more efficient.
With DirectQuery: +
Data is up-to-date, and there is no extra management overhead of having to maintain a separate copy of the data (in the
in-memory cache). Changes to the underlying source data can be immediately reflected in queries against the data
model. Datasets can be larger than the memory capacity of an Analysis Services server.
Etc.
References:https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/analysis-services/tabular-models/directquery-mode-ssas-tabular

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Certifications: CompTIA Other Certification
Exam Code: 220-1001
Exam Name: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1

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CompTIA 220-1001 Exam Practice Test Questions

QUESTION 1
A technician is setting up a wireless printer that is capable of supporting 5-1MBps throughout and a SSHO node
frequency band for communication. The technician must configure the SOHO router to support the printer. Which of the
following should the technician enable on the wireless SOHO router to ensure wireless connectivity to the printer?
A. 802.11a
B. 802. 11b
C. 802 11g
D. 802 11n
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
A user printed several documents to a shared network copier and noticed that they have very faint color density. A
technician investigates the issue and verifies that the printer had a maintenance kit installed recently. Which of the
following next steps will MOST likely resolve the issue? (Select two.)
A. Replace the toner cartridges
B. Replace the fuser module
C. Clean the paper tray rollers
D. Adjust the printer settings
E. Replace the developer
F. Empty the waste toner bottlers
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 3
Several company users are frequently forgetting passwords for their mobile devices and applications.
Which of the following should the systems administrator do to reduce the number of help desk tickets submitted?
A. Implement single sign-on.
B. Enable multifactor authentication.
C. Configure biometric authentication.
D. Remove complex password requirements.
Correct Answer: A
  

QUESTION 4
A business owner wants to provide security to laptop users with the ability to charge their devices, access corporate
LAN resources, and allow for a variety of their removable hardware.
Which of the following devices would BEST meet the owner\\’s needs?
A. Docking station
B. Port replicator
C. Thunderbolt
D. USB hub
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
A customer\\’s laptop display has suddenly become very dim. The image of the display can only be seen with a bright,
external light, as adjusting the brightness/contracts controls does not cause much change.
Which of the following components MOST likely needs to be replaced?
A. LCD panel
B. Inverter
C. Video card
D. Digitizer
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 6
A technician is troubleshooting an expansion card in a computer that allows the computer to receive faxes over a VoIP
line. The line connected to the expansion card is MOST likely which of the following cable types?
A. Coaxial
B. CAT3
C. CAT6
D. Multi-mode fiber
E. Single-mode fiber
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following Ethernet cables would BEST support an application that requires a 600 Mbps throughput at the
lowest price point?
A. Cat 3
B. Cat 5
C. Cat 5e
D. Cat 6
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
A technician is configuring a high-performance workstation. The technician needs to choose storage for the boot drive
with the highest performance possible. Which of the following drive types BEST meets this requirement?
A. MicroSD
B. 15K rpm
C. NVMe
D. USB flash
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
A customer recently moved a high-end graphics card from a known-working computer to a different computer. The
computer works without issue when viewing email and web pages or when using certain applications. However, when a
game with high-end graphics requirements is opened, the program will run for a few minutes before the computer shuts
down. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the problem?
A. Power supply wattage
B. Video RAM
C. CPU frequency
D. Monitor resolution
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A user wants to print a large job on both the front and back sides of the paper.
Which of the following settings should the technician advise the user to change in the printer settings?
A. Collate
B. Orientation
C. Duplex
D. Transparency
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which of the following terminates a coaxial cable?
A. DB9
B. RJ45
C. RG-59
D. RS-232
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A user has requested a device that could be used for web-conferences while away from work. The device will mainly be
used for emailing, document reviewing, and phone calls. Which of the following mobile devices would a technician
MOST likely recommend?
A. Tablet
B. Smart camera
C. Phablet
D. Web camera
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is an APIPA address?
A. 162.200.1.1
B. 167.100.1.1
C. 168.254.0.1
D. 169.254.1.1
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A client manages users on Dynamics 365 Sales by using Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) groups to assign
security roles. The client also uses team ownership of records in Dynamics 365 Sales extensively.
Users report that they do not have the access they expect. They cannot edit their own records but can edit team-owned
records.
You need to recommend a solution to fix the security role issues while continuing to manage users via Azure AD
groups.
What should you recommend?
A. Assign Security Roles to users directly instead of through Azure AD groups.
B. Assign Security Roles to the Local Business Owner Team instead of the Owner Team.
C. Ensure that member security role privileges are set to Direct User.
D. Assign Security Roles to the Access Team instead of the Owner Team.
E. Ensure that member security role privileges are set to Default.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-platform/admin/security-roles-privileges

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
You need to ensure that data security requirements are met.
Which security feature should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate features to the correct requirements.
Each security feature may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes
or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Examdemosimulation MB-600 exam questions-q2

Explanation:
1.
The chiefs want stakeholders to be able to see reports without needing to log in to Dynamics 365
2.
Only the chiefs should be able to see the charges against the inmates.
3.
Inmates will not continue to upload homework to SharePoint, but the homework needs to be accessible within Dynamics
365.
4.
Inmates must see only the registration form when registering for a class.
5.
Chiefs should see all registration forms.
Charges: Security roles
A security role defines how different users, such as salespeople, access different types of records. To control access to
data, you can modify existing security roles, create new security roles, or change which security roles are assigned to
each user. Each user can have multiple security roles.
Security role privileges are cumulative: having more than one security role gives a user every privilege available in every
role.
Each security role consists of record-level privileges and task-based privileges.
Inmate\\’s views: Field-level security
Field-level security is available for the default fields on most out-of-box entities, custom fields, and custom fields on
custom entities. Field-level security is managed by the security profiles. To implement field-level security, a system
administrator performs the following tasks.
1.
Enable field security on one or more fields for a given entity.
2.
Associate one more existing security profiles, or create one or more new security profiles to grant the appropriate
access to specific users or teams.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-platform/admin/security-roles-privileges
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-platform/admin/field-level-security

QUESTION 3
A client that uses Dynamics 365 Sales has forms with both Business Rules and JavaScript added to handle the
business logic on the form.
The form contains logic that cannot be handled by Business Rules. The combination of using both Business Rules and
JavaScript is now too complex to maintain.
You need to recommend a simplified form setup so the form can be maintained moving forward.
Which two should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Remove the Business Rules and use only JavaScript.
B. Evaluate whether complex parts of the logic can be solved by using Power Apps Component Framework (PCF)
control. Use Business Rules for the remaining functionality.
C. Manage the business logic with a Power Apps Component Framework (PCF) control.
D. Update logic to ensure Business Rules are optimized. Use JavaScript for the remaining functionality.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
A company has extended Dynamics 365 Sales with an ISV product.
The ISV has locked the product. The ISV product fails to meet the business needs of the company. The company has a
contractual obligation to continue using the ISV product but requires additional business logic.
You need to recommend a solution.
What should you recommend?
A. Create a managed solution with the components that you need to extend.
B. Update the business logic of the ISV to meet the needs of the company.
C. Extend the ISV with a secondary ISV that adds the additional business logic.
D. Create a new unmanaged solution with the components that you need to extend.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
A company uses Dynamics 365 Sales and Power BI.
Sales managers must be able to keep track of changes to their pipeline in the following ways:
1.
Notify the sales managers when an Opportunity changes sales stage.
2.
Notify the sales managers when the pipeline drops below 2.5M USD.
3.
When reviewing the pipeline in Power BI, a sales executive must be able to add a Playbook to an Opportunity.
You need to recommend a solution that meets the company requirements.
Which solution combination should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Examdemosimulation MB-600 exam questions-q5

QUESTION 6
A company asks you to migrate more than 5,000 records from Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement (on-premises) to
the online version of Dynamics 365 Sales.
You used a third-party utility to migrate the data. The city and state are displayed in the field that should show the street
address.
You must get the data migrated properly in the next 24 hours but have no one to help with this task. You have no other
add-ins and do not want any more customization.
You need to resolve the issues to migrate the data.
What should you do?
A. Remove data, ensure that field mappings of city and state are correct, and then migrate the data.
B. Create a custom connector in the Common Data Service, and then migrate the data.
C. Export the street address field, make changes, and then import the changes.
D. Manually edit the street address, state, and city field, and then enter appropriate data.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
A toy manufacturer is testing its processes in Dynamics 365 Sales and notices the following issues:
1.
The drop-down list of toy colors is different for different entities. They should be static and always the same.
2.
Too many decimal places are in the Quantity field. The field should have two decimal places instead of four.
3.
The Order Date field includes Date and Time but should include only Date.
You need to recommend how to fix the fields.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Examdemosimulation MB-600 exam questions-q7

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customerengagement/on-premises/customize/behaviorformat-date-time-field
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customerengagement/on-premises/customize/create-edit-global-optionsets

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
A client is implementing Dynamics 365 Sales.
You are working with a developer to identify data integration methodologies.
You need to plan a methodology to use for different integration scenarios.
Which methodology should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate methodology to the correct requirement. Each
source may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Examdemosimulation MB-600 exam questions-q8

Correct Answer:

Examdemosimulation MB-600 exam questions-q8-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/dev-itpro/data-entities/integration-overview

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
A client is implementing a Dynamics 365 Customer Service system. The company is divided into departments with one
manager per department.
The company requires the following security setup:
1.
Managers should see only accounts for the employees who report to them.
2.
Employees should see only their own accounts.
3.
Executives should see all the accounts in the company.
You need to recommend a security setup for the new implementation of accounts.
Which should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate tool to the correct data type. Each tool may be used
once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Examdemosimulation MB-600 exam questions-q9

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You want to integrate Microsoft Teams with Dynamics 365 Customer Service.
You install both apps, but Teams is not working when in Dynamics 365 Customer Service.
You need to troubleshoot the situation.
Solution: Change settings in Teams.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You need to determine which legacy data sources the college should continue to use.
Which two data sources should you recommend? Each correct answer presents a partial solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. CSV file
B. proprietary database
C. SQL database
D. Excel
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
You need to recommend a solution for integrating luggage information.
What should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate types to the correct entities. Each type must be used
once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Examdemosimulation MB-600 exam questions-q12

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Exam Code: 70-347
Exam Name: Enabling Office 365 Services
Q&As: 219

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13.DRAG DROP
Your company uses Microsoft SharePoint Online. You create a subsite in an existing site collection. The
subsite will serve as a document repository from which anyone can download documents. External
sharing is turned off globally. You plan to share 070-347 exam documents with users by emailing document links. Users
must not be required to sign in to the subsite to download the documents. You need to configure the
environment to allow document sharing with external users.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the
list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

070-347 dumps

14.Your company has an Office 365 Enterprise El subscription. The company wants to implement an
enterprise document collaboration and social networking platform that allows users to upload documents
from their computers and conduct informal polls. You need to implement a solution that meets the
requirements.

Which solution should you implement?
A. Microsoft SharePoint document libraries
B. Microsoft SharePoint surveys
C. Microsoft Yammer
D. Microsoft SharePoint newsfeeds
E. Microsoft SkyDrive Pro
Answer: C
15.Your company has an Office 365 Small Business subscription. You are the Microsoft SharePoint
70-347 dumps Online administrator. The company wants to have two separate public websites with different URLs. You
need to configure the environment to support the public websites.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade to SharePoint Online for Office 365 Enterprise, Education, and Government.
B. Create one public website and one subsite, and then configure a redirect.
C. Create two public websites and configure the DNS records for each site.
D. Upgrade to SharePoint Online for Office 365 Midsize Business.
Answer: B
16.DRAG DROP
Your company has an Office 365 Enterprise E3 subscription. You are the Microsoft SharePoint Online
administrator. You create a site collection for the marketing department. After the site collection is created,
a different employee is chosen as the site collection administrator. You need to grant the user the
appropriate permissions.
In the SharePoint admin portal, which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move
the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

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070-347 dumps

17.Your company plans to use Office 365 and Microsoft SharePoint Online. Another employee provisions
the company’s Office 365 tenant. You discover that the employee can create and manage SharePoint site
collections. You need to prevent the employee from creating or managing site collections.
From which role should you remove the employee?
A. Service administrator
B. SharePoint Online administrator
C. Global administrator
D. Site collection administrator
070-347 pdf Answer: C
18.Which device is enabled by default when creating a mirror set in a MirrorView/S environment on a
CX4-120 with FLARE 28?
A.Write intent log
B.Reserved LUN pool
C.Secondary Image
D.Clone private LUN
Answer:B
19.Which object would maintain the changes to a source LUN in the event a MirrorView/S configuration
suffered a link outage followed by an SP trespass?
A.Metavolume
B.Fracture log
C.Write intent log
D.Clone private LUN
070-347 vce Answer:C
20.In a MirrorView/S environment, a primary image is owned by SPA on the primary array. Which SP must
own the secondary image on the secondary array within the same mirror set?
A.Either SP on the secondary array
B.SPB on the secondary array
C.SPA on the secondary array
D.It is marked as a private LUN on the secondary array
Answer:C
21.The primary image of a MirrorView/S mirror set has trespassed from SPA to SPB on the primary
array.Which SP now owns the secondary image?
A.ALUA determines ownership
B.SPA on the secondary array
C.Neither SPA or SPB
D.SPB on the secondary array
070-347 exam Answer:D
22.Which best describes the MirrorView/A replication process?
A.A write is received, tracked in the SAN Copy delta set mechanism, transmitted to the secondary array.
B.A write is received, tracked in the fracture log, transmitted to the secondary array.
C.A write is received, tracked in the SnapView private LUN, transmitted to the secondary array.
D.A write is received, tracked in the write intent log, transmitted to the secondary array.
Answer:A
23.During normal MirrorView/S operations, Navisphere Manager permits host access to how many
secondary images?
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.4
70-347 dumps Answer:A
24.What CLARiiON is needed to meet a customer’s requirement for their MirrorView/S environment that
will have 50 consistency groups?
A.CX4, FLARE 22
B.CX4, FLARE 28
C.CX3, FLARE 26
D.CX3, FLARE 28
Answer:B
25.If a customer wants to present a secondary image LUN of a MirrorView/S mirror set to a host, what
must they do first?
A.The primary image must be removed from the mirror set.
B.The secondary image must be placed in the host storage group.
C.The secondary image must be removed from the mirror set or the secondary image promoted to a
primary image.
D.The secondary image must be fractured from the mirror set or the secondary image promoted to a
primary image.
070-347 pdf Answer:C

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