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070-464 dumps
Up to the Immediate Present Microsoft 70-464 Dumps Exam Cram:
QUESTION 26
You are testing disaster recovery procedures. You attempt to restore DB1 to a different server and you receive the following error message:
“Msg 33111.
Level 16, State 3, Line 1
Cannot find server certificate with thumbprint
,0xA694FBEA88C9354E5E2567C30A2A69E8FB4C44A9\
Msg 3013, Level 16, State 1, Line 1
RESTORE DATABASE is terminating abnormally.”
You need to ensure that you can restore DB1 to a different server. Which code segment should you execute?

070-464 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
070-464 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
You need to create the InvoiceStatus table in DB1. How should you define the InvoiceID column in the CREATE TABLE statement?
070-464 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Which data type should you use for CustomerID?
A. varchar(11)
B. bigint
C. nvarchar(11)
D. char(11)
70-464 dumps
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 29
You need to modify InsertInvoice to comply with the application requirements. Which code segment should you execute?
070-464 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B

C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
You attempt to process an invoice by using usp_InsertInvoice.sql and you receive the following error message: “Msg 515, Level 16, State 2, Procedure usp_InsertInvoice, Line 10 Cannot insert the value NULL into column ‘InvoiceDate’, table ‘DB1.Accounting.Invoices’; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails.” You need to modify usp_InsertInvoice.sql to resolve the error.
How should you modify the INSERT statement?
A. InvoiceDate varchar(l00) ‘InvoiceDate’,
B. InvoiceDate varchar(100) ‘Customer/InvoiceDate’, ‘
C. InvoiceDate date ‘@InvoiceDate’,
D. InvoiceDate date ‘Customer/@InvoiceDate’,
070-464 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
You need to modify the function in CountryFromID.sql to ensure that the country name is returned instead of the country ID. Which line of code should you modify in CountryFromID.sql?
A. 04
B. 05
C. 06
D. 19
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 32
You execute IndexManagement.sql and you receive the following error message: “Msg 512, Level 16, State 1, Line 12
Subquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when the subquery follows =,! =, <, <= ,>, > = or when the subquery is used as an expression.” You need to ensure that IndexManagement.sql executes properly. Which WHILE statement should you use at line 18?
A. WHILE SUM(@RowNumber) < (SELECT @counter FROM @indextable)
B. WHILE @counter < (SELECT COUNT(RowNumber) FROM @indextable)
C. WHILE COUNT(@RowNumber) < (SELECT @counter FROM @indextable)
D. WHILE @counter < (SELECT SUM(RowNumber) FROM @indextabie)
070-464 vce 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Question No : 33  According to keegan’s model of adaptation strategies, a firm that decides to operate globally by changing its product and its promotion methods has chosen
A. A dual adaptation strategy.
B. The backward variant of a product invention strategy.
C. The forward variant of a product invention strategy.
D. A straight extension strategy.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Communication adaptation is a strategy that does not change the products, but advertising and marketing campaigns are changed to reflect the local culture and beliefs. In contrast, a dual adaptation strategy changes both the product and the promotion to provide the best chance of acceptance in a foreign market.
Question No : 34
Distribution channels ensure that goods in international trade are transferred successfully to end users. Where are intermediaries, such as trading companies, most likely selected?
A. Channels within nations.
B. Export department of the seller.
C. International division of the seller.
D. Channels between nations.
070-464 exam 
Answer: D
Explanation:
Channels between nations carry goods to foreign borders. They include air, land, sea, or rail transportation channels. At this stage, in addition to transportation methods, intermediaries are selected (e.g., agents or trading companies), and financing and risk management decisions are reached.
Question No : 35
Managerial attitudes toward global operations are viewed by researcher HowardPerl mutteras a key to understanding multinational firms. An ethnocentric attitude is indicated by:
A. An identification with the nationality of the host country.
B. Collaboration between the firm’s subsidiaries and the firm’s central administration.
C. A high volume of information flow in the form of orders and advice to subsidiaries.
D. A staffing emphasis on finding and developing the best people in the world for key positions anywhere in the firm.
Answer: C
Explanation:
An ethnocentric attitude assumes that the home country’s people, practices, and ideas are superior to all others. Thus, the firm’s identification is with the owner’s nationality. Authority and decision making are centralized, so communication is likely to involve a high volume of information flow in the form of orders and advice to subsidiaries. Moreover, home-country
standards are apt to be used for performance evaluation of entities and individuals. Also, this ethnocentric attitude is perpetuated by recruiting and developing home-country individuals for key posts throughout the firm. The advantages of an ethnocentric attitude are simplicity and close control. The disadvantages are social and political problems in foreign countries, poor feedback, ineffective planning, lack of flexibility and innovative thinking, and higher turnover of managers in foreign subsidiaries.

Question No : 36
Managerial attitudes toward global operations are viewed by researcher HowardPerl mutteras a key to understanding multinational firms. A polycentric attitude is indicated by
A. An identification with the nationality of the owner.
B. Evaluation and control standards that are both local and global.
C. High information flow in multiple directions.
D. Relatively little decision making by the central administrative authority.
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Answer: D
Explanation:
A polycentric attitude assumes that cultural differences require local managers to make most decisions because they are more knowledgeable about local conditions than are central administrators. Thus, development of local managerial talent is crucial. Another result is that foreign operating performance is primarily evaluated based on results. As a consequence,methods, training, and incentives vary significantly among subsidiaries. Furthermore, control is predominantly local, the firm is identified with the nationality of the host nation, and relatively little communication occurs with central administration or among subsidiaries. One disadvantage is that local operations may have inefficiencies because of duplication of activities. Another disadvantage is loss of goal congruence between local entities and the firm as a whole. Advantages are more capable and motivated local managers, better results in local markets, local development of new product ideas, and stronger support by host governments.
Question No : 37
Managerial attitudes toward global operations are viewed by researcher HowardPerl mutteras a key to understanding multinational firms. A geocentric attitude is indicated by
A. An identification with national perspectives even though the firm is genuinely international.
B. Control and evaluation methods that are locally determined.
C. Decision making concentrated in the central administrative authority.
D. Little communication among subsidiaries.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A geocentric attitude is truly internationally oriented while absorbing the best that various cultures offer. It is a completely balanced approach with full collaboration between central administrators and subsidiaries, control and evaluation methods that harmonize local and overall firm standards, and frequent communication in all directions (i.e., between central
administrators and subsidiaries and among subsidiaries). Moreover, talent, not nationality, determines personnel decisions throughout the firm.

Question No : 38 According to research on the international contingency model of leadership, which path goal leadership style is most likely to be accepted around the world as culturally appropriate?
A. Directive.
B. Participative.
C. Supportive.
D. Achievement-oriented.
70-464 pdf
Answer: B
Explanation:
A participative style entails consultation with employees and serious attention to their ideas. The participative style, although not always the best, is the most widely accepted internationally. Every country surveyed found it to be culturally acceptable.
Question No : 39
Research on the common characteristics of leaders of global firms found that:
A. Ambition and relentless drive were more significant than honesty and trustworthiness.
B. The leaders tended to have multidisciplinary problem solving ability.
C. Being multilingual was unimportant.
D. Having traveled extensively before entering the working world was relatively uncommon.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A common characteristic of successful leaders of global firms is that they have effective problem- solving skills that draw from a multidisciplinary approach. The best candidates have varied backgrounds and can draw on a multitude of life experiences. They also tend to be flexible and adaptable, have good interpersonal skills, and communicate successfully.
Question No : 40
For a multinational firm, which of the following is a disadvantage of an ethnocentric staffing policy in which all key management positions are filled by parent-company nationals?
A. An ethnocentric staffing policy significantly raises compensation, training, and staffing costs.
B. An ethnocentric staffing policy produces resentment among the firm’s employees in host countries.
C. An ethnocentric staffing policy limits career mobility for parent-country nationals.
D. An ethnocentric staffing policy isolates headquarters from foreign subsidiaries.
70-464 vce
Answer: B
Explanation:
An ethnocentric staffing policy has the advantage that expatriates may understand the objectives, policies, and procedures of the parent firm better than local employees do. However, ethnocentrism in hiring has the following disadvantages, among others:(1) Expatriate managers have difficulty in adapting to a new culture, language, and physical environment;
(2) training and relocation costs may be high;
(3) host-country governments prefer local control;
(4) the morale and performance of host-country employees will suffer.

Question No : 41
Which of the following is a source of communication breakdown within an organization due to a sense of superiority by members of a particular culture?
A. Perceptual problem.
B. Stereotyping.
C. Ethnocentrism.
D. Uncertainty avoidance.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Ethnocentrism is the attitude that one’s own group is superior. It is perpetuated through the value structures and nationalistic spirit of the people.
Question No : 42  Which of the following management orientations is characterized by an organization’s efforts to adapt the product and marketing program to each local environment?
A. Ethnocentric.
B. Polycentric.
C. Geocentric.
D. Fegiocentric.
070-464 exam 
Answer: B
Explanation:
A polycentric attitude assumes that cultural differences require local managers to make most decisions because they are more knowledgeable about local conditions than are central administrators. Thus, development of local managerial talent is crucial. Another result is that foreign operating performance is primarily evaluated based on results. As a consequence, methods, training, and incentives vary significantly among subsidiaries. Furthermore, control is predominantly local, the firm is identified with the nationality of the host nation, and relatively little communication occurs with central administration or among subsidiaries. One disadvantage is that local operations may have inefficiencies because of duplication of activities. Another disadvantage is loss of goal congruence between local entities and the firm as a whole. Advantages are more capable and motivated local managers, better results in local markets, local development of new product ideas, and stronger support by host governments. Accordingly, the polycentric attitude adapts to each local environment.
Question No : 43
According to research on path-goal leadership styles done in many countries, which styles are neither the most nor the least accepted internationally?
I. Directive
II. Supportive
III. Participative
IV. Achievement-oriented
A. land II.
B. land Ill.
C. II and IV.
D. Ill and IV.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The participative style, although not always the best, is the most widely accepted internationally. The directive style is the least accepted internationally. It was not deemed appropriate in the U.S., U.K., Canada, Australia, Germany, and Sweden. Theachievement orientedstyle was found unacceptable in such countries as Brazil, France, Italy, and Japan. The supportive style was not accepted in such countries as Brazil, France, India, and Sweden.
Question No : 44
With the globalization of economies, many organizations have expanded their operations to international locations. As an advisor to management, an internal auditor will most likelyrecommend that a geocentric, or worldwide, attitude be adopted. Select the reason the geocentric attitude is preferred.
A. It promotes a simpler organizational structure.
B. It provides greater autonomy for host country managers.
C. It provides the best balance of local and worldwide objectives.
D. It promotes tighter organizational control.
70-464 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
According to Howard Perlmutter, the geocentric attitude toward international operations is world oriented. The intention is to balance local and worldwide objectives in all aspects of operations, to maintain global standards while permitting local managers to exercise appropriate discretion.
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QUESTION 1
Which mode will shut down a process?
A. EXEC
B. ADMIN
C. CONFIG
D. ADMIN-CONFIG
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
How are labels exchanged between the AS\\’es in an Option B Layer-3 VPN solution?
A. Via an eBGP multihop connection between the Ingress PE\\’s in each AS.
B. Via an eBGP multihop connection between a Route-Reflector in each AS.
C. There are no labels exchanged between the two AS\\’es.
D. Via an eBGP connection between the directly connected ASBR\\’s, one in each AS.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
How frequently does the WDSYSMON Watcher thread wake up to check counters?
A. every 500 msec
B. every 2 sec
C. every 200 msec
D. every 1 sec
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios_xr_sw/iosxr_r3-8/general/man_pages/crpkg38/ar38wtdg.pdf

QUESTION 4
Which statements are true regarding L3VPN configurations?
A. Prior to configuring a vrf within MP-BGP, the router has to have instantiated the VPNv4 or VPNv6 address-family.
B. On a single PE router, the Route Distinguisher and the Route Targets must be the same.
C. Prior to configuring a neighbor in the VPNv4 address-family, it must already be configured for IPv4-Unicast.
D. The import and export Route Targets must be the same on a PE.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which command is required to permit the retention of BGP Prefixes on a router with VRFs not importing the associated
Route Target?
A. route-policy PASS-ALL in
B. retain route-target all
C. import route-target policy all
D. import route-target all
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
How many times are Layer 3 lookups performed on a packet transiting a CRS or ASR9k router?
A. Three times: in the ingress linecard, the fabric, and the egress linecard
B. Once: in the active RP/RSP
C. Once: in the ingress linecard
D. Twice: in the ingress linecard and again in the egress linecard
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
One of your peers show in the SHOW BGP VPNV4 UNICAST SUMMARY output
What is the cause of this?
A. The label value ranges are mismatched.
B. The peer has no prefixes with a Route-Target that the local router is importing.
C. The BGP prefixes between the routers have not fully converged and will correct itself in time.
D. The peer router is not configured to use the VPNv4 address-family for this connection.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which command removes a user from configuration mode but keeps the user connected to the router?
A. clear line
B. clear session
C. clear commit
D. clear config session
Correct Answer: D
 

QUESTION 9
How do you verify the label(s) used between the ASBRs in Option A Inter-AS L3VPN operation?
A. There are no labels used between the ASBRs
B. Verify the labels assigned by MP-BGP in the SHOW BGP VPNV4 UNICAST
C. Verify the labels assigned by MP-BGP in the SHOW CEF VRF output
D. Verify the labels assigned by LDP in the output of SHOW MPLS FORWARDING
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which command is used to undo a change after issuing a commit command?
A. router# rollback configuration to -1
B. router(config# commit undo
C. router(config)# commit rollback
D. router# rollback configuration last 1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which method or protocol exchanges label information?
A. MP-BGP
B. MOSPF
C. LSR
D. OSPFv3
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What command is used to manually generate a core dump to aid in troubleshooting a process?
A. context
B. dumpcore
C. exception
D. follow
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which protocol is a PE to CE routing protocol?
A. ODR
B. LDP
C. RIPv1
D. eBGP
Correct Answer: D

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CCNP Security 2020 | Related Exam

300-710 SNCF — Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower Next-Generation Firewall (SSNGFW) and Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower Next-Generation IPS (SSFIPS)
300-720 SESA — Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance (SESA)
300-725 SWSA — Securing the Web with Cisco Web Security Appliance (SWSA)
300-730 SVPN — Implementing Secure Solutions with Virtual Private Networks (SVPN)
300-735 SAUTO — Implementing Automation for Cisco Security Solutions (SAUI)

Related Certifications

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Implementing and Configuring Cisco Identity Services Engine (300-715 SISE)

300-715 SISE

  1. Certifications: CCNP Security, Cisco Certified Specialist – Security Identity Management Implementation
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Updates Cisco 300-715 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which port does cisco ISE use for native supplicant provisioning of a windows computer?
A. TCP/UDP 8905
B. TCP 8443
C. TCP/UDP 8909
D. TCP 443
Correct Answer: C
TCP: 80, 8443 (web or Cisco NAC agent installation) Note TCP port 8443 is enabled by default, configurable, and
corresponds to Guest configuration TCP: 8905 (Cisco NAC agent update) TCP: 8909 and UDP: 8909 (web, Cisco NAC
Agent, supplicant provisioning wizard installation)

QUESTION 2
In addition to the CLI, what is another option to manage a Cisco IPS?
A. SDEE
B. Cisco SDM
C. Cisco IDM
D. Cisco ISE
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What does the dot1x system-auth-control command do?
A. causes a network access switch not to track 802.1x sessions
B. globally enables 802.1x
C. enables 802.1x on a network access device interface
D. causes a network access switch to track 802.1x sessions
Correct Answer: B
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/XE3-8-0E/15-24E/configuration/guide/xe-380-configuration/dot1x.html

QUESTION 4
Which two components are required for creating a Native Supplicant Profile within a BYOD flow? (Choose two )
A. Windows Settings
B. Connection Type
C. iOS Settings
D. Redirect ACL
E. Operating System
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
Drag the steps to configure a Cisco ISE node as a primary administration node from the left into the correct order on the
night.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Cisco 300-715 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Cisco 300-715 exam questions q5-2

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/24/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_24/b_ise_admin_guide_24_new_Step 1
Choose Administration > System > Deployment.
The Register button will be disabled initially. To enable this button, you must configure a Primary PAN.
Step 2
Check the check box next to the current node, and click Edit.
Step 3
Click Make Primary to configure your Primary PAN.
Step 4
Enter data on the General Settings tab.
Step 5
Click Save to save the node configuration.

QUESTION 6
In which two ways can users and endpoints be classified for TrustSec?
(Choose Two.)
A. VLAN
B. SXP
C. dynamic
D. QoS
E. SGACL
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
Which profiling probe collects the user-agent string?
A. DHCP
B. AD
C. HTTP
D. NMAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What must be configured on the Cisco ISE authentication policy for unknown MAC addresses/identities for successful
authentication?
A. pass
B. reject
C. drop
D. continue
Correct Answer: B
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_man_id_stores.html

QUESTION 9
A customer is concerned with the use of the issued laptops even when devices are not on the corporate network. Which
agent continues to be operational even when the host is not on the Cisco ISE network?
A. Cisco ISE Agent
B. Cisco NAC Agent
C. Cisco Custom Agent
D. Cisco NAC Web Agent
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which port does Cisco ISE use for native supplicant provisioning of a Windows laptop?
A. TCP 8909
B. TCP 8905
C. CUDP 1812
D. TCP 443
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What is a requirement for Feed Service to work?
A. TCP port 3080 must be opened between Cisco ISE and the feed server
B. Cisco ISE has a base license.
C. Cisco ISE has access to an internal server to download feed update
D. Cisco ISE has Internet access to download feed update
Correct Answer: B
 
QUESTION 12
Which two task types are included in the Cisco ISE common tasks support for TACACS+ profiles?
(Choose two.)
A. Firepower
B. WLC
C. IOS
D. ASA
E. Shell
Correct Answer: BE
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-1/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_21/b_ise_admin_guide_20_chapter_0100010.html
TACACS+ ProfileTACACS+ profiles control the initial login session of the device administrator. A session refers to each
individual authentication, authorization, or accounting request. A session authorization request to a network device
elicits
an ISE response. The response includes a token that is interpreted by the network device, which limits the commands
that may be executed for the duration of a session. The authorization policy for a device administration access service
can
contain a single shell profile and multiple command sets.
The TACACS+ profile definitions are split into two components:
1.
Common tasks
2.
Custom attributes
There are two views in the TACACS+ Profiles page (Work Centers > Device Administration > Policy Elements > Results
> TACACS Profiles)–Task Attribute View and Raw View. Common tasks can be entered using the Task Attribute View
and custom attributes can be created in the Task Attribute View as well as the Raw View.
The Common Tasks section allows you to select and configure the frequently used attributes for a profile. The attributes
that are included here are those defined by the TACACS+ protocol draft specifications. However, the values can be
used
in the authorization of requests from other services. In the Task Attribute View, the ISE administrator can set the
privileges that will be assigned to the device administrator. The common task types are:
1.
Shell
2.
WLC
3.
Nexus
4.
Generic
The Custom Attributes section allows you to configure additional attributes. It provides a list of attributes that are not
recognized by the Common Tasks section. Each definition consists of the attribute name, an indication of whether the
attribute is mandatory or optional, and the value for the attribute. In the Raw View, you can enter the mandatory
attributes using a equal to (=) sign between the attribute name and its value and optional attributes are entered using an
asterisk (*) between the attribute name and its value. The attributes entered in the Raw View are reflected in the Custom
Attributes section in the Task Attribute View and vice versa. The Raw View is also used to copy paste the attribute list
(for example, another product\\’s attribute list) from the clipboard onto ISE. Custom attributes can be defined for nonshell services.

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Deploying Enterprise Voice with Skype for Business 2015 (70-333) Exam

  • Plan and design Skype for Business with Enterprise Voice (30-35%)
  • Deploy and configure Enterprise Voice (30-35%)
  • Manage and troubleshoot Enterprise Voice (30-35%)

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Most up-to-date Q&A.

QUESTION 1
You need to plan the subnets for Call Admission Control (CAC) and media bypass.
Which subnet or subnets should you use for each office?
To answer, drag the appropriate subnet or subnets to the correct office in the answer area.
Each subnet may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between
panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-333 exam questions q1

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-333 exam questions q1-2

QUESTION 2
You need to configure the trunks defined in the Skype for Business topology based on the requirements. Which two
actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Enable media bypass.
B. Enable centralized media processing.
C. Set Encryption Support Level to required.
D. Disable REFER support.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
Contoso, Ltd., has five offices. The offices are configured as shown in the exhibit. Click the Exhibit button.

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-333 exam questions q3

Each office has a local connection to the public switched telephone network (PSTN). The peak usage statistics are
shown in the following table:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-333 exam questions q3-2

Every audio call consumes 100 kilobits per second (Kbps).
You plan to replace the PSTN connection with a centralized SIP trunking service. The service will contain a Sip trunk in
the Seattle office and a SIP trunk in the Amsterdam office.
The solution must use least cost routing.
You need to calculate the maximum amount of bandwidth that will be used by each SIP trunk.
What is the maximum amount of bandwidth that will be used by each SIP trunk? To answer, drag the appropriate
bandwidth amount to the correct SIP trunk in the answer area. Each bandwidth amount may be used once, more than
once, or
not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-333 exam questions q3-3

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-333 exam questions q3-4

QUESTION 4
You have a Skype for Business Server 2015 infrastructure. The infrastructure contains three servers. The servers are
configured as shown in the following table:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-333 exam questions q4

You plan to provide users with the ability to use desktop sharing and to display Microsoft PowerPoint presentations
during conference.
You need to create the firewall rules.
How should you configure the firewall rules? To answer, select the appropriate servers and ports for each feature in the
answer area.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-333 exam questions q4-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-333 exam questions q4-3

QUESTION 5
You need replace the existing automatic call distribution (ACD) helpdesk with Skype for Business Server 2015 solution.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence to recreate the ACD in Skype for Business Server 2015? To
answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-333 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-333 exam questions q5-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/skypeforbusiness/plan-your-deployment/enterprise-voicesolution/response-group https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/skypeforbusiness/deploy/deploy-enterprise-voice/deploymentprocess-for-response-group

QUESTION 6
You need to allocate the current average amount of bandwidth that is required for peer-topeer (P2P) voice calls for all
three sites. How much bandwidth in kilobits per second (Kbps) should you allocate?
A. 36,960 Kbps
B. 51,150 Kbps
C. 80,025 Kbps
D. 135,795 Kbps
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You need to enable all users for voice mail.
Which three configuration steps are required to configure the environment for Exchange Unified Messaging? Each
correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Run the OcsUMUtil executable on the Skype for Business server.
B. Run ExchUCUtil.ps1 on the Exchange server.
C. Run the New-CsHostingProvider Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlet.
D. Run the New-CsHostedVoicemailPolicy Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlet.
E. Apply the hosted voice mail policy to all users.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
Remote users report that they fail to access their voice mail by using the Call Voice Mail option in the Skype tor
Business client. Remote users can access voice mail by using the subscriber access number. Internal users do not
report any
issues accessing voice mail.
You need to enable voice mail access without manually dialing the subscriber number.
Which two sets of ports should you open? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. TCP 443 and UDP 3478 on the external firewall
B. TCP 5062 and 8057 on the internal firewall.
C. TCP 443 and UDP 3478 on the internal firewall
D. UDP 50,000 to 59,999 on the internal firewall
E. UDP 50,000 to 59,999 on the external firewall
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
A company has offices in Montreal and New York. The company has an existing phone system. The company plans to
migrate to Skype for Business 2015.
Users dial number 3 followed by a four-digit extension to reach users in the other office. The company would like to
keep the same user experience after they migrate to Skype for Business 2015.
You to create a dial plan that allows users to dial between the two offices.
Which pattern match and translation rule should you use? To answer, select the appropriate pattern match and
translation rule in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-333 exam questions q9

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-333 exam questions q9-2

QUESTION 10
You need to implement voice resiliency for international calls.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-333 exam questions q10

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-333 exam questions q10-2

QUESTION 11
A company implements Enterprise Voice. All users are assigned a direct inward dialing (DID) phone number.
Due to the increased fees for direct inward dialing (DID) phone ranges, the company must make the following changes:
[email protected] You need to implement a solution.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the four appropriate actions from the list of
actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-333 exam questions q11

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-333 exam questions q11-2

QUESTION 12
You need to recommend a solution that will improve voice quality for Skype for Business clients. What should you
recommend?
A. Change the Voice802lp value to 46.
B. Ensure that VoiceDiffservtag values are set to 46 for all Skype for Business Phone Edition devices at all sites.
C. Configure an Audio and Video Quality of Service (QoS) to use a DSCP value of 40 and a port range of 57501:65535.
D. Configure a Domain Group Policy object (GPO) configuring Quality of Service (QoS) and set it to Enforced for all
Windows 7 clients.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Your company has three offices.

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-333 exam questions q13

The network is configured as shown in the exhibit. Click the Exhibit button. You have a Skype for Business Server 2015
infrastructure. All of the Skype for Business Server components are located in the Amsterdam office. The conference
call will contain the attendees shown in the following table:
Each audio call consumes 100 kilobits per second (Kbps).
You need to allocate network bandwidth for each attendee location.
How much bandwidth should you allocate for each attendee location? To answer, drag the appropriate bandwidth
amounts to the correct attendee locations in the answer area. Each bandwidth amount may be used once, more than
once, or
not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-333 exam questions q13-2

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-333 exam questions q13-3

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QUESTION 1
Which are two features of the Cisco 1100 or 4000 series ISR router product lines? (Choose two.)
A. Unified communications with series build apps for Cisco TDM
B. Advanced LTE backup connectivity offering network resiliency for business continuity
C. Cloud-based hardware management
D. Limited connectivity options
E. 50 to 200 Mbps WAN connections with rich branch services – the same services found at HQ
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2
What is the right approach to achieve secure infrastructure against attack requirements of WAN connectivity?
A. Monitoring application performance
B. Operational simplicity for server infrastructure
C. Simple and agile service deployment model
D. Introduce Advanced Threat Defense solution
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What are two ways that MX security appliances achieve automatic failover and high availability? (Choose two.)
A. Always on (availability groups)
B. Survivable Remote Site Technology (SRST)
C. Warm spare (using VRRP)
D. Redundant gateways (using HSRP)
E. Dual redundant uplink support (multiple ISPs)
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
Which two features of the Cisco catalyst 1100 ISR router deliver a high performance and high-quality experience?
(Choose two.)
A. Mobility express to simplify wireless deployment and operation
B. Application hosting
C. 802.11ac Wi-Fi support
D. WAN and application optimization with WAAS
E. Unified communications with series build apps for Cisco TDM
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which three statements describe Cisco Aironet 1815 Series Access Points? (Choose three.)
A. The most cost-efficient offering designed for SMB in the Cisco Wireless AP portfolio (less than $5/AP/month)
B. An ideal solution for large organizations
C. Offers next-generation 3×3 MIMO with Wave 2 802.11ac
D. Easy to deploy and manage with Cisco Mobility Express
E. Increases total cost of ownership while delivering advanced features like 802.11ac Wave 2
F. Ideal for organizations looking to address growth but have budget restrictions
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 6
What is Meraki\\’s core vision and value proposition?
A. To operate in increasingly mobile, modern networks by delivering preventative protection without compromising
performance
B. To provide a complete cloud-managed IT solution through simplifying powerful technology
C. To lead in the invention and development of the industry\\’s most advanced information technologies
D. To shape the future of the internet by creating opportunities for the investors and ecosystem partners
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two tools allow administrator to maximize the security of their Dashboard management accounts? (Choose two.)
A. Captcha challenge-response tests
B. Local (direct) access only policies
C. Role-based administration
D. Biometric authentication
E. Two-factor authentication
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
Which are two advantages of Umbrella branch package? (Choose two.)
A. No client side configuration required
B. Umbrella connector easy to install in Cisco ISR 4K routers
C. All policy management and reporting at ISR
D. Prevent already-infected devices from connecting to command and control
E. Prevent guest or corporate users from connecting to malicious domains and IP addresses
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
Which are two benefits of Cisco catalyst SMB switches that benefit the customer the most? (Choose two.)
A. Logical upgrade and replacement for the Cisco Catalyst 2960-Plus, at the same price
B. Contains advanced encryption functionality
C. Built for large scale deployments
D. Niche business functionality
E. Cool, quiet, fan-less design ideal for labs, open spaces and the workplace
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two characteristics differentiate the Meraki Dashboard from competing network management interfaces?
(Choose two.)
A. Centralized single pane of glass for access and management
B. Instantaneous access to virtualized applications
C. Built-in live chat for on-demand troubleshooting support
D. Intuitive cloud-based user interface
E. Comprehensive aggregator of multi-vendor networks
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 11
Which three statements regarding Mobility Express are true? (Choose three.)
A. Runs wireless LAN controller function on an access point
B. Ideal for sites with up to 200access points and 2000 clients
C. Provisioning to configure the controller
D. Supported on all Wave 2 access points
E. Supports simple Over-the-Air
F. Supports Workgroup Bridge mode of operation
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 12
Which is a K-12 feature supported in Mobility Express?
A. mDNS Gateway
B. Guest WLAN enhancements
C. Expert View in the WebUI
D. Schedule WLAN
E. CMX Cloud support
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 13
Which two products are considered a part of the Cisco Meraki full stack? (Choose two.)
A. UCS servers
B. MX security appliances
C. MR wireless access points
D. Aironet wireless access points
E. Catalyst switches
Correct Answer: BE

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Cisco 300-070 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which three menu choices will open a window in which you can assign softkey templates? (Choose three.)
A. Device > Phone Configuration
B. Device > Device Settings > Device Profile
C. Service > Service Parameters
D. System > Device Defaults Configuration
E. System > Device Pool Configuration
F. System > Enterprise Parameters
Correct Answer: ABE

 

QUESTION 2
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager menu path is used to access the softkey template configuration
window?
A. Device > Device Settings > Softkey Templates
B. Device Settings > Softkey Templates
C. IP Phone > Template > Softkey
D. Device > IP Phone > Template > Softkey
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which DiffServ PHB classification is recommended by Cisco for interactive video traffic?
A. AF31
B. CS3
C. EF
D. AF41
E. CS4
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
What are two characteristics of a partition? (Choose two.)
A. Assigned to sources of call routing requests
B. Any group of numbers with the same reachability
C. Used in conjunction with calling search spaces to track calls to certain numbers
D. Used in conjunction with calling search spaces to restrict outgoing calls to certain numbers
E. Contains calling search spaces
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 5
An administrator chooses Service > Control Center in the DNA tool. Which service should be enabled?
A. dialed number analyzer server
B. database synchronization
C. directory number alias sync
D. directory number alias lookup
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
When the Cisco IOS router or gateway receives a call setup request, what is the PID value of the default dial peer?
A. ID:3
B. PID:6
C. PID:0
D. PID:4
E. PID:5
F. PID:1
G. PID:2
H. PID:7
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
When implementing a new dial plan, which tool if used to determine if the dial plan theoretically functions as desired?
A. Cisco Prime Collaboration
B. RTMT
C. DNA
D. CDR
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Which statement is true about digit analysis within Cisco Unified Communications Manager when all patterns are in the
same partition?
A. Translation patterns are always matched before route patterns.
B. Transformation patterns are always matched first before any other patterns.
C. SIP route patterns are always matched before any other patterns.
D. Route patterns are always matched before translation patterns.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which two of these are required in order for Cisco Unified Communications Manager to support software conferencing?
(Choose two.)
A. The Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application needs to be activated on the server running the conferencing
service in the cluster.
B. The service parameter for the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application needs to have Run Flag set to True.
C. The software conference bridge resource needs to be configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. The Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application needs to be activated for all servers in the cluster.
E. Under the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application parameters, the conference bridge needs to have Run Flag
set to True.
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 10
On what equipment do you configure Layer 2 to Layer 3 QoS mapping?
A. switch
B. router
C. firewall
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
E. bridge
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
What is the relationship between a Region and a Location?
A. The Region codec parameter is used between a Region and its configured Locations.
B. The Region setting for a Location sets the number of audio and video calls that Location can support.
C. The codec parameter configured in the Region is only used between Regions and Location bandwidth is only used
between Locations.
D. The Region codec parameter is combined with Location bandwidth when communicating with other Regions.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if
the dialed number was 5324?
A. 5XXX
B. 51XX
C. 513X
D. 5134
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the Exhibit. Which phones can Phone 1 reach?pass4itsure 300-070 exam question q13

A. Phone 2
B. Phone 3
C. Phone 4
D. Phone 5
E. Phone 2 and Phone 3
F. Phone 4 and Phone 5
G. Phone 2, Phone 3 and Phone 4
H. Phone 2, Phone 3, Phone 4 and Phone 5
Correct Answer: H

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HP HPE2-CP02 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
A solution architect discusses an HPE 3PAR StoreServ sizing for an SAP HANA environment with a customer. Is this
statement correct when sizing the storage capacity for this workload? For backup purposes, double capacity of the
database should be planned.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A company is considering the most ideal type of backup for their SAP HANA environment. Is this a benefit of using
storage snapshots? Consistency checks on block level guaranteed.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://archive.sap.com/kmuuid2/e09dae76-27a3-3210-828f-ce9de54e68a6/SAP%20HANA%20Backup_Recovery%20Overview.pdf

QUESTION 3
Is this statement regarding architectural design considerations correct?
Use separate log and data backups for better deduplication rations and backup speed.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA6-4641ENW.pdf (p.20)

QUESTION 4
When discussing the “MCOD” installation option with a customer, is this statement correct? It is supported for productive
scale-out deployments only.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A solution architect is discussing the appropriate storage solution for an SAP HANA TDI implementation for a mid-sized
customer. Is this a storage system configuration that should be presented to show the HPE portfolio for this type of
HANA implementation model?
HPE StoreVirtual 3200 array in a hybrid configuration
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A company is considering the most ideal type of backup for their SAP HANA environment. Is this a benefit of using
storage snapshots? usually created/restored very fast
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://archive.sap.com/kmuuid2/e09dae76-27a3-3210-828f-ce9de54e68a6/SAP%20HANA%20Backup_Recovery%20Overview.pdf

QUESTION 7
During a presentation on an SAP HANA TDI solution, the customer is interested in HPE Intelligent Resilient Framework
(IRF). Does this statement describe the use of IRF in a customer\\’s network environment? IRF virtualizes up to nine
individual network devices
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://manualzz.com/doc/33270174/hpe-iaas-reference-architecture-for-sap-business-applicat

QUESTION 8
A customer wants to implement a 100TB SAP Business Warehouse on a HANA (BWoH) configuration. Is this a server
system that the solution architect should recommend for the environment? HPE ProLiant BL680c
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A customer needs a proposal for a network infrastructure to support their SAP HANA environment in a multi-cloud
environment. Does this statement describe HPE distributed cloud networking? HPE distributed cloud networking offers a
common network layer that enables communication between Microsoft Azure and OpenStack.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
When discussing the use of QoS in a SAP HANA environment running on an HPE 3PAR StoreServ system, is this
statement correct? The minimum latency goal can be set to a millisecond on volume basis.
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Is this the tool used for general administration and monitoring functions related to SAP HANA in HPE CS500/CS900?
YaST
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Is this a single node delivery method for SAP HANA? multiple components-one system
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/it/doc/EDOC1100004728/16948663/installing-the-database

QUESTION 13
Is this a single node delivery method for SAP HANA? multiple components-one database
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://support.huawei.com/enterprise/it/doc/EDOC1100004728/16948663/installing-the-database

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  • It is the only vendor-neutral, performance-based certification covering more than a specific vendor or a single function like security or networking to help you better realize the return on investment of cloud infrastructure services.
  • CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002) reflects an emphasis on incorporating and managing cloud technologies as part of broader systems operations. It assumes a candidate will weave together solutions that meet specific business needs and work in a variety of different industries.
  • It includes the new technologies to support the changing cloud market as more organizations depend on cloud-based technologies to run mission-critical systems, and hybrid and multi-cloud have become the norm.
  • CompTIA Cloud+ covers competency in cloud models, virtualization, infrastructure, security, resource management, and business continuity.
  • Familiarity with any major hypervisor technologies for server virtualization is recommended.

The latest CompTIA Cloud+ cv0-002 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
A small clinic is moving its health and accounting systems to a SaaS solution. The clinic holds patient- and business-
sensitive information. Which of the following is the company expected to do to protect its data?
A. Document, configure, and enforce strong account management policies.
B. Disable and document unneeded ports and protocols on the SaaS servers.
C. Install antivirus and disable unneeded services on all SaaS servers.
D. Harden the underlying infrastructure: servers, firewalls, and load balancers.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
A company uses SaaS and IaaS solutions from multiple cloud providers. Users report that this requires them to manage
and remember multiple user accounts and passwords. Which of the following solutions should be implemented to fix this
issue?
A. SSO
B. Federation
C. Password synchronization
D. Lowered password complexity
E. Multifactor authentication
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is commonly the MAIN concern in public cloud implementations?
A. Security
B. Flexible Billing
C. Scalability
D. Availability
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
A VM was deleted by mistake today at 11:05 a.m. Below are the backups currently available for the VM:

pass4itsure CV0-002 exam question q4

Crash-consistent restore is acceptable. Which of the following backups should be chosen?
A. Snapshot from today at 11:00
B. Full from three days ago at 00:00
C. Incremental from today at 00:00
D. Synthetic-full from yesterday at 12:00
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
An organization is looking to implement an online web-based mail system to allow employees to access email while not
on the network. The organization wants to have complete control over the servers and the data. Which of the following
should the organization implement?
A. Public cloud
B. Hybrid cloud
C. Off-premise hosting
D. On-premise hosting
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
A company is deploying a new instant messaging app to allow for communications with external vendors. Each entity
will host its own version of the application, but users must be able to talk between the companies. Which of the following
security techniques would MOST likely be used to allow this to happen?
A. User synchronization
B. Password synchronization
C. Public federation
D. Multifactor authentication
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Which of the following cloud services would MOST likely be selected by a software development company that needs a
cloud in which to develop software and does not have infrastructure requirements?
A. PaaS
B. SaaS
C. IaaS
D. XaaS
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
A host with 30 VMs has 64GB of RAM, four quad-core CPUs, four 1-gigabit NICs and is connected to a NAS that
provides NFS volumes. The hosted VMs are reporting slow performance. From the information given, which of the
following is the MOST likely cause of the slow performance?
A. Insufficient NAS capacity
B. The server is using 110V instead of 220V
C. One hard drive has failed in the RAID 5
D. Insufficient network capacity
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
A company wants to ensure their website, which allows customers to purchase products, is in a cluster at another
geographical location. Which of the following solutions does this represent?
A. Differential backups
B. Data deduplication
C. Cold site
D. High availability
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
A Chief Information Officer (CIO) has summoned an administrator due to the datacenter power bill being significantly
higher than normal. The administrator explains that a new array was installed for a 20TB CRM application. Which of the
following solutions would provide a new performance benefit and also reduce power consumption?
A. SSD
B. SAS
C. SATA
D. FC
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
A system administrator found that a user repeatedly violates acceptable use policies by consuming more disk space
than the user is authorized to consume. Which of the following tools should the administrator use to enforce the
acceptable use policy?
A. Quotas
B. Resource pools
C. LUN masking
D. Reservations
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
An administrator is responsible for managing a host that is part of a private cloud. The host has one physical quad core
CPU. The administrator is tasked with creating a new guest that requires a single CPU. Which of the following actions
should the administrator do?
A. Assign 1 virtual CPU to the Guest
B. Assign 1 virtual CPU to the Host
C. Assign 1 physical CPU to the Guest
D. Assign 1 physical CPU to the Host
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which of the following BEST describes the process of restoring service to a primary datacenter in a controlled manner,
following a disaster?
A. Failover
B. Replication
C. Failback
D. Geographical diversity
Correct Answer: C

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300-180 DCIT – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/dcit.html

The latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-180 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1

Which three send and receive locations an administrator can find the root cause for a network issue on the Cisco UCS

domain? (Choose three.) 

A. between fabric interconnect and LAN or SAN 

B. between the FEX and fabric interconnect 

C. between each FEX on the Cisco UCS chassis 

D. between the host and FEX 

E. between fabric interconnects within the domain 

F. between the Cisco UCS chassis and system interconnects 

Correct Answer: ABD 

 

QUESTION 2

If a server is not associated with a service profile, the activated firmware remains pending. Which two steps should you

take? (Choose two.) 

A. Manually reboot the server. 

B. Reset the server to a new profile. 

C. Reset the unassociated server to activate the firmware. 

D. Reinitialize the firmware process with Cisco UCS Manager. 

E. Download the firmware and start over. 

F. Shut down gracefully and start over. 

Correct Answer: AC 

 

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 300-180 exam question q3

You configure a vPC between two Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switches but the peer link will not come up. What is the
problem?
A. The system priority must be the same.
B. The configuration is correct. The problem lies elsewhere.
C. The role priority must be the same.
D. The vPC domain numbers must be different.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Which method does Cisco recommend for recovering a fabric interconnect when you have no working images on the
bootflash?
A. Reboot the primary fabric interconnect.
B. Receive the kickstart image by using TFTP.
C. Download the system image.
D. Initiate auto-install.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ts/guide/UCSTroubleshooting/UCSTroubleshooting_chapter_01010.pdf


QUESTION 5
You have an unresponsive blade server. You suspect that there is an issue with the current firmware. Which action do
you take to reboot the server from the Cisco UCS Manager GUI?
A. Reset the server.
B. Reset CIMC.
C. Reset BMC.
D. Recover the corrupt BIOS.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
The installation of a new OTV network connecting two data centers via a service provider LAN has failed verification
steps. Which statement explains why certain types of data are not being successfully transferred across the OTV
network?
A. The number of extended VLANs across all configured overlays may be greater than 256.
B. The number of MAC addresses on either edge device may exceed 4000.
C. The additional 42-byte OTV overhead, along with the DF bit being set, may cause the service provider to drop
packets based on their 1500 MTU settings.
D. Having more than two edge devices per site is not supported.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 300-180 exam question q7

In the initial SAN deployment or after topology changes in the SAN, some hosts cannot communicate with storage.
What are three possible causes of the problem? (Choose three.)
A. misconfigured fabric timers
B. misconfigured port parameters
C. VSAN pruning
D. VSAN trunking issues
E. VLAN problems
F. mismatched zoning
Correct Answer: ABF

 

QUESTION 8
You use dynamic vNICs. You create a new service profile. You receive an error message that indicates that you
exceeded the number of dynamic vNICs. Which two components can affect the maximum number of dynamic vNICs in
the Cisco UCS environment? (Choose two.)
A. the model of the fabric interconnects
B. the number of chassis uplinks
C. the model of the FEX
D. VMDirectPath sizing
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

pass4itsure 300-180 exam question q9

You see the fault when configuring a global ID pool in Cisco UCS Central. Which scenario could cause the issue?
A. The same ID is defined in Cisco UCS Central and Cisco UCS Manager.
B. Global service profiles consume IDs from the blocks that have an assigned ID range qualifier.
C. The same IP address is configured in two registered domains.
D. The same ID is assigned to the service profiles in two registered domains.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
In a Cisco UCS environment, what are the three power types in a power policy? (Choose three.)
A. backup
B. grid
C. redund
D. n-plus-1
E. non-redund
F. plus-1
Correct Answer: BDE

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.pass4itsure 300-180 exam question q11

The two switches are stuck in the EXCHANGE and EXSTART states. Which option is a possible cause of the issue?
A. The subnet mask is mismatched.
B. The interfaces are not connected.
C. The MTU is mismatched.
D. The IP address of the OSPF process is incorrect.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
What should you do when you see faults during the initial setup and discovery process?
A. Take note and address the faults.
B. You can safely ignore these faults.
C. Log them and try to address the first one.
D. Reboot until the error messages go away.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
A Cisco UCS chassis has two ports on I/O Module 1 connected to Fabric Interconnect A, and two ports on I/O Module 2
connected to Fabric Interconnect B. The I/O modules are connected to ports 1 and 2 on their respective fabric
interconnects, and end host mode is configured. After a link failure occurs on port 1 of I/O Module 1, what happens to
the traffic that was pinned to that link?
A. The traffic fails until the link issue is resolved.
B. The traffic is repinned to I/O Module 2 link 1, which is connected to Fabric Interconnect
C.
D. The traffic is repinned to the remaining link between I/O Module 1 and Fabric Interconnect A.
E. The traffic is repinned automatically to Fabric Interconnect B.
Correct Answer: C

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Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam 70-764: Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-764.aspx

This exam is intended for database professionals who perform installation, maintenance, and configuration tasks. Other responsibilities include setting up database systems, making sure those systems operate efficiently, and regularly storing, backing up, and securing data from unauthorized access.

pass4itsure 70-764 Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

Configure data access and auditing (20–25%)

  • Configure encryption
  • Configure data access and permissions
  • Configure auditing

Manage backup and restore of databases (20–25%)

  • Develop a backup strategy
  • Restore databases
  • Manage database integrity

Manage and monitor SQL Server instances (35–40%)

  • Monitor database activity
  • Monitor queries
  • Manage indexes
  • Manage statistics
  • Monitor SQL Server instances

Manage high availability and disaster recovery (20–25%)

  • Implement log shipping
  • Implement AlwaysOn Availability Groups
  • Implement failover cluster instances

Latest effective Microsoft MCSA 70-764 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You work as a Database Administrator (DBA) for a company named ABC.com.
The company uses a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 infrastructure.
You have a database named CorpDB.
A full backup of CorpDB is taken every week.
A differential backup of CorpDB is taken every night at midnight.
A transaction log backup of CorpDB is taken at 8 am 12 pm, 4 pm, and 8 pm.
You plan to deploy some changes to CorpDB at after the 4 pm log backup completes.
You need to ensure that you can undo the changes quickly if the deployment fails.
During the deployment of the changes, no other changes must be made by users to the database. You need a backup
and recovery strategy for deploying the changes.
Which two of the following actions would meet the backup and recovery requirements whilst ensuring the regular
backup schedule is not disrupted? (Choose two.)
A. Take a full backup of the database before deploying the changes.
B. Take a copy-only backup of the database before deploying the changes.
C. Take a snapshot of the database before deploying the changes.
D. Restore the database from the backup.
E. Restore the snapshot to another server and recover the required objects from the snapshot.
F. Revert the database to the snapshot.
Correct Answer: CF

 

QUESTION 2
You are the administrator for a SQL Server 2014 instance that stores the data for an online transaction processing sales
system.
The company takes full backups every week; differential backups on the days with no full backups; and hourly
transaction backups.
These backups are stored on a backup server in the company\\’s data center. Every week, the company places the full
backup on a tape and sends it to a third-party backup storage system. The company is worried that a disaster might
occur
that could destroy their computer center and cause them to lose orders.
You need to determine the best method for providing the smallest amount of data loss and downtime without leasing or
purchasing additional physical locations.
What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Set up SQL Server Always On with a SQL Azure database as a replica.
B. Set up SQL Server Always On by using a SQL Server on a Windows Azure Virtual Machine.
C. Put the differential backup on tape and send it to the third-party backup storage system.
D. Use the Microsoft SQL Server Backup to Microsoft Windows Azure Tool to direct all backups to a different
geographical location.
Correct Answer: D
SQL Server 2012 was the first version to provide the ability to back up databases to the Cloud, and SQL Server 2014
improves on the process. Microsoft SQL Server Backup to Windows Azure Tool enables backup to Windows Azure Blob
Storage and encrypts and compresses SQL Server backups stored locally or in the cloud.

 

QUESTION 3
You are planning to deploy log shipping for Microsoft SQL Server and store all backups on a dedicated file share.
You need to configure the servers to perform each log shipping step.
Which server instance should you configure to perform each action? To answer, select the appropriate server instances
in the dialog box in the answer area.
Hot Area:pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q3-1

Note: Before you configure log shipping, you must create a share to make the transaction log backups available to the
secondary server.
SQL Server Log shipping allows you to automatically send transaction log backups from a primary database on a
primary server instance to one or more secondary databases on separate secondary server instances. The transaction
log
backups are applied to each of the secondary databases individually. An optional third server instance, known as the
monitor server, records the history and status of backup and restore operations and, optionally, raises alerts if these operations fail to occur as scheduled.
Box 1: Primary server instance.
The primary server instance runs the backup job to back up the transaction log on the primary database.
backup job: A SQL Server Agent job that performs the backup operation, logs history to the local server and the monitor
server, and deletes old backup files and history information.
When log shipping is enabled, the job category “Log Shipping Backup” is created on the primary server instance.
Box 2: Secondary server instance
Each of the three secondary server instances runs its own copy job to copy the primary log backup file to its own local
destination folder.
copy job: A SQL Server Agent job that copies the backup files from the primary server to a configurable destination on
the secondary server and logs history on the secondary server and the monitor server. When log shipping is enabled on
a
database, the job category “Log Shipping Copy” is created on each secondary server in a log shipping configuration.
Box 3: Secondary server instance.
Each secondary server instance runs its own restore job to restore the log backup from the local destination folder onto
the local secondary database.
restore job: A SQL Server Agent job that restores the copied backup files to the secondary databases. It logs history on
the local server and the monitor server and deletes old files and old history information. When log shipping is enabled
on
a database, the job category “Log Shipping Restore” is created on the secondary server instance.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/database-engine/log-shipping/about-logshipping-sql-server

 

QUESTION 4
You plan to create a database.
The database will be used by a Microsoft .NET application for a special event that will last for two days.
During the event, data must be highly available.
After the event, the database will be deleted.
You need to recommend a solution to implement the database while minimizing costs.
The solution must not affect any existing applications.
What should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. SQL Server 2014 Enterprise
B. SQL Server 2014 Standard
C. SQL Azure
D. SQL Server 2014 Express with Advanced Services
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Programmability (AMO, ADOMD.Net, OLEDB, XML/A, ASSL) supported by Standard and Enterprise
editions only. References: Features Supported by the Editions of SQL Server 2014.

 

QUESTION 5
Overview
You are a database administrator for a company named Litware, Inc.
Litware is a book publishing house. Litware has a main office and a branch office.
You are designing the database infrastructure to support a new web-based application that is being developed.
The web application will be accessed at www.litwareinc.com. Both internal employees and external partners will use the
application.
You have an existing desktop application that uses a SQL Server 2008 database named App1_DB.
App1_DB will remain in production.
Requirements
Planned Changes
You plan to deploy a SQL Server 2014 instance that will contain two databases named Database1 and Database2.
All database files will be stored in a highly available SAN.
Database1 will contain two tables named Orders and OrderDetails.
Database1 will also contain a stored procedure named usp_UpdateOrderDetails.
The stored procedure is used to update the order information. The stored procedure queries the Orders table twice each
time the procedure executes. The rows returned from the first query must be returned on the second query unchanged along with any rows added to the table between the two read operations.
Database1 will contain several queries that access data in the Database2 tables.
Database2 will contain a table named Inventory.
Inventory will contain over 100 GB of data.
The Inventory table will have two indexes: a clustered index on the primary key and a nonclustered index.
The column that is used as the primary key will use the identity property.
Database2 wilt contains a stored procedure named usp_UpdateInventory. usp_UpdateInventory will manipulate a table
that contains a self-join that has an unlimited number of hierarchies. All data in Database2 is recreated each day ad
does
not change until the next data creation process. Data from Database2 will be accessed periodically by an external
application named Application1. The data from Database2 will be sent to a database named Appl_Dbl as soon as
changes
occur to the data in Database2. Litware plans to use offsite storage for all SQL Server 2014 backups.
Business Requirements
You have the following requirements:
Costs for new licenses must be minimized.
Private information that is accessed by Application must be stored in a secure format.
Development effort must be minimized whenever possible.
The storage requirements for databases must be minimized.
System administrators must be able to run real-time reports on disk usage.
The databases must be available if the SQL Server service fails.
Database administrators must receive a detailed report that contains allocation errors and data corruption.
Application developers must be denied direct access to the database tables. Applications must be denied direct access
to the tables.
You must encrypt the backup files to meet regulatory compliance requirements.
The encryption strategy must minimize changes to the databases and to the applications.
During performance testing, you discover that the database INSERT operations against the Inventory table are slow.
You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to complete the INSERT operations. What
should you recommend?
A. Partition the nonclustered index.
B. Partition the Inventory table. snapshot replication
C. Create a column store index. Master Data Services
D. Drop the clustered index. change data capture
Correct Answer: A
Scenario:
Database2 will contain a table named Inventory. Inventory will contain over 100 GB of data. The Inventory table will
have two indexes: a clustered index on the primary key and a nonclustered index.
The column that is used as the primary key will use the identity property.

 

QUESTION 6
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database.
You want to make a full backup of the database to a file on disk.
In doing so, you need to output the progress of the backup.
Which backup option should you use?
A. STATS
B. COMPRESSION
C. CHECKSUM
D. IN IT
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answers choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series.
Start of repeated scenario.
You are a database administrator for a company that has on-premises Microsoft SQL Server environment. There are
two domains in separate forests. There are no trust relationships between the domains. The environment hosts several
customer databases, and each customer uses a dedicated instance running SQL Server 2016 Standard edition. The
customer environments are shown in the following table.pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q7

End of repeated scenario.
You need to monitor WingDB and gather information for troubleshooting issues.
Which two tools should you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. sys.dm_tran_locks
B. sp_lock
C. sys.dm_tran_active_snapshot_database_transactions
D. Activity Monitor
E. sp_monitor
Correct Answer: BD
The performance issues is related to locking.
B: sp_lock reports snapshot information about locks, including the object ID, index ID, type of lock, and type or resource
to which the lock applies.
D: The Activity Monitor in SQL Server Management Studio is useful for ad hoc views of current activity and graphically
displays information about:
Processes running on an instance of SQL Server.
Blocked processes.
Locks.
User activity.
Incorrect Answers:
E: System Monitor primarily tracks resource usage, such as the number of buffer manager page requests in use,
enabling you to monitor server performance and activity using predefined objects and counters or user-defined counters
to
monitor events. System Monitor (Performance Monitor in Microsoft Windows NT 4.0) collects counts and rates rather
then data about the events (for example, memory usage, number of active transactions, number of blocked locks, or
CPU
activity). You can set thresholds on specific counters to generate alerts that notify the operator
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/performance/performance-monitoring-and-tuning-tools?view=sql-server-2017

 

QUESTION 8
You work as a Database Administrator (DBA) for a company named ABC.com.
The company uses a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 infrastructure.
You have a database named CorpDB. CorpDB contains a table named SalesInfo.
You discover that some table has been deleted from the SalesInfo table.
You are unable to find out who deleted the information.
You need to implement a solution to monitor the deletion of any further information from the SalesInfo table. You want to
minimize the development effort required for the solution.
What should you configure?
A. You should configure table permissions.
B. You should configure a user role.
C. You should configure change data capture.
D. You should configure a trigger.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
You use SQL Server 2014.
You need to create a single object that inserts a provided value into Table1, and then returns a count of the records in
Table1.
Develop the solution by selecting and arranging the required code blocks in the correct order. You may not need all of
the code blocks.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q9-1

 

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
A company has an on-premises Microsoft SQL Server environment.
SQL Server backups should be stored as Microsoft Azure blob pages. The connection process from the SQL Server
instances to Azure should be encrypted.
You need to store backups as Azure blob pages. Which option should you use?
A. backup compression
B. backup encryption
C. file snapshot backup
D. mirrored backup media sets
E. SQL Server backup to URL
F. SQL Server Managed Backup to Azure
G. tail-log backup
H. back up and truncate the transaction log
Correct Answer: F
SQL Server Managed Backup to Microsoft Azure manages and automates SQL Server backups to Microsoft Azure Blob
storage. You can choose to allow SQL Server to determine the backup schedule based on the transaction workload of
your database. Or you can use advanced options to define a schedule. The retention settings determine how long the
backups are stored in Azure Blob storage.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/backup-restore/sql-server-managed-backup-to-microsoft-azure?view=sql-server-2017

 

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answers choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
You are a database administrator for a company that has an on-premises Microsoft SQL Server environment and
Microsoft Azure SQL Database instances. The environment hosts several customer databases, and each customer
uses a dedicated instance. The environments that you manage are shown in the following table.pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q11

You need to configure auditing for the Adventure Works environment.
How should you complete the Transact-SQL statement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q11-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q11-2

Box 1: CREATE SERVER AUDIT
Create a server audit.
You must implement auditing to record access to data that is considered sensitive by the company.
Create a database audit
Box 2: ALTER SERVER AUDIT
Enable the server audit.
Box 3: CREATE DATABASE AUDIT
Create the database audit specification.
Box 4: FOR SERVER AUDIT
You must implement auditing for all objects in the DAV schema.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relationaldatabases/security/auditing/create-a-server-audit-and-database-audit-specification

 

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has several Microsoft SQL Server instances. Each instance hosts many databases.
You observe I/O corruption on some of the instances.
You need to perform the following actions:
Identify databases where the PAGE VERIFY option is not set.
Configure full page protection for the identified databases.
Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q12

For each database that you identify, you run the following Transact-SQL statement:

pass4itsure 70-764 exam question q12-1

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
We should check for CHECKSUM, not NONE or TORN_PAGE_DETECTION
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/policy-based-management/set-the-page-verify-database-option-to-checksum?view=sql-server-2017

 

QUESTION 13
Your company has offices in Seattle and Montreal.
The network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that have SQL Server 2012 installed. Server1 is located
in the Seattle office. Server2 is located in the Montreal office. The latency of the WAN link between the Montreal office and the Seattle office is more than 200 ms.
You plan to implement an AlwaysOn availability group on both servers.
You need to recommend a failover type for the availability group. What should you recommend?
A. Synchronous manual failover
B. Synchronous automatic failover
C. Asynchronous automatic failover
D. Asynchronous manual failover
Correct Answer: D

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